When a word ending with the /d/ or /t/ sound is pronounced and the next word starts with a consonant, the sounds /d/ or /t/ are silent. For example: I used to play tennis.
My question is related to the regular verbs. Consider:
I managed to do it.
If the /d/ sound is silent in this case, this then is like pronunciating I manage to do it. The context will decide if the tense is present or past.
Does this stand?
In ordinary speech all of the following (and many others similar) are ambiguous - is the speaker meaning present or past?
I like(d) to drink coffee.
I hope(d) to see him.
I manage(d) to get up at 6am.
I promise(d) to buy a dog.
...etc...
The ambiguity, potentially, results in a significantly different message. However, all sentences can be made clear easily by articulating clearly (i.e. incorporating a clear break in sound before "...to...").
Yes, I agree that d/t can be lost between consonants in casual speech. However, I think the loss proceeds by (1) complete assimilation of d/t to the preceding consonant, producing a long consonant, then at a more casual level, (2) shortening the long consonant. For your example "I managed to do it", I hear a lengthened affricate at the end of "manage", and then at a more casual level, that affricate can be shortened, in case the context makes clear that "manage" should be past tense.
