There are not many questions of "Intervocalic Consonant" on Stackoverflow.
Ok, I found this theory on the internet. It said:
The main syllabification principle
If allophonic rules are to be allowed to refer to syllable boundaries as part of their conditioning environments, we need a principled way of specifying the location of such boundaries. I propose that English syllabification is governed by a straightforward principle:
(1) Subject to certain conditions (discussed below), consonants are syllabified with the more strongly stressed of two flanking syllables. Thus the /k/ in packet belongs to the first, stressed, syllable. This analysis is supported by its homophony with pack it: both are /ˈpæk.ɪt/. The /f/ of dolphin belongs in the first syllable: /ˈdɒlf.ɪn/ has the same rhythm as selfish /ˈself.ɪʃ/, where this division is supported by the morphology. The /p/ in happy belongs in the first syllable, as evidenced by its relative lack of aspiration and by the pre-fortis clipping of the /æ/: /ˈhæp.ɪ/. Both the /n/ and the /t/ of enter belong in the first syllable, since the /t/ triggers clipping of both the /e/ and the /n/. The /p/ of typing /ˈtaɪp.ɪŋ/ conditions clipping of its syllable-mate /aɪ/: compare tiepin, where the /p/ exerts no such influence. (Such clipping of the /aɪ/ as there is in this latter word falls under the different heading of ‘rhythmic clipping’, the isochronising effect of unstressed syllables on a preceding stressed syllable.)
Similarly, crisis is /ˈkraɪs.ɪs/: compare rising /ˈraɪz.ɪŋ/, with a lenis syllable-final consonant, hence less clipping. The rhythmic difference between hearty /ˈhɑːt.ɪ/ and hardy /ˈhɑːd.ɪ/ has the same explanation, and is to be referred to the durational difference between heart and hard. In driver /ˈdraɪv.ə/, as in thousands of other words, the phonology parallels the morphology (pace Fudge 1969: 20). In banker we see this even more clearly (pre-fortis clipping, /ˈbæŋk.ə/); anchor rhymes with it perfectly, but fan club has a different rhythm.
As the influence exerted by suffixes causes the stress to shift, so the syllabic affiliations of consonants change. In note and noting /ˈnəʊt.ɪŋ/ the /t/ of not(e) is syllable-final, but in notation /nəʊ.ˈteɪʃ.n/ and annotate /ˈæn.ə.teɪt/ it is syllable-initial and aspirated. In attest /ə.ˈtest/ the first /t/ is strongly aspirated, attracted into the second syllable by the stress; in attestation /ˌæt.e.ˈsteɪʃ.n/ it has less aspiration or none, since the second syllable is now unstressed while the first has secondary pre-tonic stress, which makes it capture the /t/ back. In apply /əˈplaɪ/ the /l/ is voiceless, as it carries the aspiration of the syllable-initial /p/; in application /ˌæp.lɪ.ˈkeɪʃ.n/ it is less so. In magnetic /mæg.ˈnet.ɪk/ the /t/ is syllable-final and a candidate for possible tapping; in magnetism /ˈmæg.nə.₀tɪz.əm/ the tertiary (post-tonic) stress on /ɪz/ is sufficient to attract the /t/ into syllable-initial position, triggering aspiration while blocking tapping.
Generally, the theory said that "consonants are syllabified with the more strongly stressed of two flanking syllables."
Here is what I understood: "If an Intervocalic Consonant is standing between 2 vowels, that Consonant will belongs to stressed syllable". However, I feel that this theory didn't discuss how that Intervocalic Consonant plays its role on the unstressed syllable?.
For example, in headache /ˈhed.eɪk/, the /d/ will belong to the syllable /ˈhed/, but I can hear the sound /ˈdeɪk/ quite clearly.
So, clearly the /d/ DO play its role on the eɪk/ which is an unstressed syllable.
So, I think when we pronounce /ˈhed/, the tip of the tongue will stay at the gum ridge for a while (maybe a few seconds or miliseconds) & then the tongue flaps down to create the sound /ˈdeɪk/
So, when we pronounce /ˈhed/, the tongue of d went half-way (the tip of the tongue touches the gum ridge); & when we pronounce /ˈdeɪk/, the tongue of d went the final-half (the tongue will flap down from the position of the gum ridge)
Also, how syllabification works when "Intervocalic Consonant" stands between 2 unstressed syllables?
This is what I understood but not sure I am right?
