I am currently reading a column by Thomas L. Friedman titled "We're always still Americans," published on December 11, 2014 in International New York Times.
If there had been another 9/11 after the first 9/11, many Americans would have told the C.I.A. to do whatever it wants, civil liberties be damned."
I clearly get what the author is trying to say, but the more I look into the sentence, the more confused I become with its structure.
At first, I thought "would" was omitted between "liberties" and "be," thus having a parallel structure with "many Americans would have told the C.I.A. to do whatever it wants."
many Americans would have told the C.I.A. to do whatever it wants.
civil liberties would be damned.
But, then I realized that it wouldn't make sense because the conditional clause "If there had been another 9/11 after the first 9/11" requires the main clause to be "would + the present perfect" tense like below.
- many Americans would have told the C.I.A. to do whatever it wants."
- civil liberties would have been damned.
So, my next guess was the following:
- many Americans would have told the C.I.A. to do whatever it wants and civil liberties to be damned.
Now, I am more convinced with my own second guess, but I don't know if the "to" is grammatically allowed to be omitted. If so, why?
If my second guess is wrong, can somebody explain the structure of the last phrase?