a) - The document you requested will take four days to be ready.
b) - The document you requested will take four days to prepare.
Does (b) give the same meaning as (a)? Is this a correct way to use 'prepare' as an intransitive verb?
Thank you.
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1To prepare (v.intr.) : 1. To make things or oneself ready.thefreedictionary.com/Prepare– user66974Commented Jul 8, 2014 at 23:06
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It's not so much the verb 'prepare' that needs examining here as the 'take ___ + to-infinitive' construction. AHD has: take: 15. To require (something) as a basic necessity [often followed by a to-infinitive]: It takes money to live in that town. >> The house will take 7 months to build. / The helicopter will take all your skill to pilot // cf The car will cost $30 000 to buy. // With 'The meal will take 30 minutes to cook', it is uncertain whether 'It will take 30 minutes for the meal to cook' or 'It will take me/him ... 30 minutes to cook the meal' is meant, as 'cook' is an ergative verb.– Edwin AshworthCommented Jul 8, 2014 at 23:39
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1 Answer
They're mostly interchangeable, but there are some subtleties to consider.
Suppose you were making a cake: you might say that it takes 30 minutes to prepare, but it will be ready in an hour, because of the time it will take to bake it after you prepare it. Likewise, "four days to prepare" suggests that people will be actively working on the document for four days, while "four days to be ready" suggests that some of that time may (or may not) be taken up by other activities, such as an approval process.
