In past tense when is it better to use one over the other?
has been [verb] vs has [verb]
For example:
Your order has been shipped vs. Your order has shipped
Is there a difference between the two?
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In the second sentence the object of the verb has been implausibly converted into its subject.– user49727Commented Sep 6, 2013 at 10:02
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1 Answer
Both sentences are correct. As to which is better, it will depend on the context. It would be unusual for someone selling to another person on eBay to use the second variation (Your order has shipped). But it is the standard usage in notifications from Amazon.
The verb "ship" is an example of a transitive/intransitive (or ergative) verb. The object of the transitive clause can become the subject of the intransitive clause. A similar example is:
Her watch has been broken. / Her watch has broken.
There's a good explanation of this grammatical feature on the Macmillan Dictionary site:
http://www.macmillandictionaryblog.com/verbs-in-learners-dictionaries-part-3
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4Has been broken implies someone broke it, while has broken states that it has passed into a non-working condition, keeping open the possibility of this happening spontaneously. An important distinction in some cases.– Chris HCommented Sep 6, 2013 at 13:15