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Quha, Quhay, interrog. and rel. pron. Also: qwha, qha, qua, qwa, wha, vha, hua; qhaa; quhaw; quhai qwhay, whay, quay; quhae, whae; quhe, quhey, qwhey.

 

[North. ME qua (Cursor M.), wha (Rolle), mid. and south. hwo (c 1200) etc. (see Quho), early ME wha (Orm), hwa (c 1230), wa (12th c.), OE hwá nom. personal interrog. pron. sing. or pl. cf. Quho.] Who.

Quha, Quhay, interrog. and rel. pron. Also: qwha, qha, qua, qwa, wha, vha, hua; qhaa; quhaw; quhai qwhay, whay, quay; quhae, whae; quhe, quhey, qwhey.

[North. ME qua (Cursor M.), wha (Rolle), mid. and south. hwo (c 1200) etc. (see Quho), early ME wha (Orm), hwa (c 1230), wa (12th c.), OE hwá nom. personal interrog. pron. sing. or pl. cf. Quho.] Who.

What was the sound the author used in this word? Was it /ʍ/? He said the sound was velar, and clearly said it wasn’t labial. Could it mean that he produced a sound that wasn’t labialized? I have never heard of such a realization of this phoneme in any historical dialect of English, but I know very little about these things and it's perfectly possible that it existed from my point of view.

This confuses me even more. Was it some kind of hypercorrectness introduced by those who, like the Doctour, didn’t like the spellings with the “q”? It seems rather inconsistent though, as there it is not “quheen”, but “queen”.

What was the sound the author used in this word? Was it [ʍ]? He said the sound was velar, and clearly said it wasn’t labial. Could it mean that he produced a sound that wasn’t labialized? I have never heard of such a realization of this phoneme in any historical dialect of English, but I know very little about these things and it's perfectly possible that it existed from my point of view.

This confuses me even more. Was it some kind of hypercorrectness introduced by those who, like the Doctour, didn’t like the spellings with the “q”? It seems rather inconsistent though, as it is not “quheen”, but “queen”.