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Jun 15, 2020 at 7:40 history edited CommunityBot
Commonmark migration
Nov 22, 2019 at 21:10 comment added Warren P Oh look a rational human being answered. This answer is great because it's data driven, aims at objectivity, and eschews subjectivity and cultural bias.
Oct 1, 2014 at 0:45 comment added Janus Bahs Jacquet @tchrist Exactly. The need that is used here is the non-modal one that both inflects for 3sg and has an infinitive (and past participle)—which is hardly surprising, given that the modal need is limited to negated (including limited) and interrogative clauses (“He needn't do that” and “Need he do this?”, but *“He need do this”).
Oct 1, 2014 at 0:41 comment added tchrist @JanusBahsJacquet I don’t know. Something that takes a to-infinitive isn’t a modal in my book. Given modal-need example like He need do nothing to prove himself, then a double-modal would be he might need do nothing — which I’d be really surprised to hear anyone say, but I don’t spend much time in Scotland or Appalachia, so I’m not real judge.
Oct 1, 2014 at 0:23 comment added Janus Bahs Jacquet I wonder why your source apparently claims that might need to is a double modal. It's not: need is a perfectly common, non-modal verb here, with an infinitive. So no, of course that doesn't clang in anybody's ears, any more than “might think” or “might floccinaucinihilipilificate”. Similarly, might’ve used to could only clang in anyone's ears because used to is rarely used in the perfect and may be ungrammatical as such to some (“I've always used to do this”?).
Sep 12, 2014 at 4:33 history edited James Waldby - jwpat7 CC BY-SA 3.0
fix 1 spelling
Dec 29, 2012 at 0:18 history edited tchrist CC BY-SA 3.0
added 3 characters in body
Jun 10, 2012 at 15:27 comment added Elberich Schneider I vote +1, as I promised. :)
Jun 10, 2012 at 15:18 history answered tchrist CC BY-SA 3.0