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Apr 26, 2023 at 21:17 comment added Greybeard My opinion is that trying to apply rules to English is often pointless and thankless task. I can think of individual contexts in which any form of the verb "to be" would be correct. I hoped my examples would indicate as much.
Apr 26, 2023 at 17:41 comment added Lyubov Berezina Thank you for your comment! @Greybeard If you don’t mind, I would like to ask your opinion on the idea that is presented in the book that I referred to in my post. The author says that regardless of the verb and the tense that is used in the pseudo-cleft part, the copula can only be IS or WAS - for non-past and past respectively. I thought that means that the copula cannot be “has been” or “has been”. What is your opinion on it? Perhaps, I got it all wrong…
Apr 26, 2023 at 16:38 comment added Tuffy @Greybeard Sorry if I was dense. I felt the point might be more explicitly made, rather than being, as it were in parenthesis. But essentially, it seems, we agree.
Apr 26, 2023 at 14:37 history edited Greybeard CC BY-SA 4.0
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Apr 26, 2023 at 14:18 comment added Greybeard @Tuffy I thought I had done that with [now, currently, at this moment, still] and [at that time] "What he did to me <ten years ago> is why I am [now, currently, at this moment, still] unemployed." --Compare "What he did to me <ten years ago/at that time> was why I was [at that time] unemployed."
Apr 26, 2023 at 13:44 comment added BillJ What evidence do you have to support the fact that your examples contain 'fused' relative constructions.
Apr 26, 2023 at 13:35 comment added Tuffy Could this be filled out a little? Isn't the point of the timing not so much whether the act itself is past or present or whether its effects are past or present? So: "What he did to me <ten years ago> is why I am <now> unemployed." But perhaps also, "What you did to me ten years ago is/was why I set fire to your house yesterday.
Apr 26, 2023 at 13:03 history answered Greybeard CC BY-SA 4.0