This is basically a follow-up question of: What is the origin of "long" and "short" in finance?

In finance, you can be long or short a position. While the usage of the word “short” in these situations makes sense to me (“You are short/lacking n shares of XYZ stock”), I struggle to find to an explanation for the choice of the counterpart: “long”.

In the cited question, the person asking the question said, they just assumed “that "short sale" came first, and "long" was just the natural opposite”. This is where my question comes in:

Does “(to be) long” have a (historic) meaning that explains the usage of the word or is it really just the opposite of “short”?

This is basically a follow-up question of: What is the origin of "long" and "short" in finance?

In finance, you can be long or short a position. While the usage of the word “short” in these situations makes sense to me (“You are short/lacking n shares of XYZ stock”), I struggle to find to an explanation for the choice of the counterpart: “long”.

In the cited question, the person asking the question said, they just assumed “that "short sale" came first, and "long" was just the natural opposite”. This is where my question comes in:

Does “(to be) long” have a (historic) meaning that explains the usage of the word or is it really just the opposite of “short”?

Edit: As this was marked a duplicate: The linked questions is—besides its title—only about the origin of “short”. As I already said, it simply assumes that “long“ is used, because it is the opposite of short—without any proof or explanation. I don't think it is good enough to simply assume the meaning of a word. Even the accepted answer only discusses the meaning/etymology of the word „short“.