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Sep 15, 2022 at 19:34 comment added ermanen I've updated my answer to make it as clear as possible.
Sep 15, 2022 at 19:30 history edited ermanen CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 15, 2022 at 19:12 comment added ermanen I've explained the reason why I've posted as an answer and the OP was ok with my suggestion in the comments first. I wasn't planning to post as an answer otherwise. It is up to the OP. The question has a wiggle room per the details also and open to interpretation to some extent. The ambiguity is related to using "the folk" (more archaic or dialectal) instead of "folks"; (the usual form) for the meaning "men, people indefinetely". I think this whole discussion proves that it is ambiguous :) There is also some ambiguity regarding US and UK usage difference.
Sep 15, 2022 at 18:53 comment added Laurel Then it's not "ambiguous whether it's singular or plural person" or "tricks people into thinking it refers to one person", like the question asked.
Sep 15, 2022 at 18:34 comment added ermanen @Laurel I've never said it refers to a single person.
Sep 15, 2022 at 18:09 comment added Laurel In what dialect or timeframe does "folk" refer to a single person? Certainly not any dialect I've heard. (Except maybe in extremely restricted situations such as "he is a merfolk", which wouldn't work for the question.) I also checked the Middle English Dictionary, which shows that "folk" and "folks" were synonymous, both referring to a plurality of people.
Sep 15, 2022 at 13:09 comment added Peter Shor I don't think this works. When I hear folk, my first reaction is that it refers to several people. If you wanted a word that would surprise readers when they discovered it referred to only one person, this would be perfect, but you want something that works the other way around.
Sep 15, 2022 at 10:26 comment added ermanen Yes but also the ambiguity is even stronger with its two forms: folk and folks; and the archaic or literay usage with "the folk" to mean men, people indefinetely. Not the usages like "old folk", it could be common as you mentioned. However, I might delete this if the OP decides on another approach. Not all native speakers can see the nuance and it might not be intended for native speakers.
Sep 15, 2022 at 10:16 comment added psmears @ermanem: OK. The OP said they wanted something that will "imply singular with it leaving room for plural". I'm pointing out (since I'm guessing they may not be a native speaker) that "folk" does not imply singular - to any native speaker it will imply plural.
Sep 15, 2022 at 10:05 comment added ermanen @psmears Yes the ambiguity is not about that it doesn't have a singular meaning; it is about folk being a collective noun and has some other plural senses; however it can "look" singular. I confirmed with the OP before posting as an answer. It was a comment before as I've mentioned.
Sep 15, 2022 at 10:03 comment added psmears @ermanem: It does have other meanings, but the meaning that people will understand if you use it in this context is the plural one, because that's by far the most common - for example, it's the only meaning listed in this dictionary for folk as a noun.
Sep 15, 2022 at 9:59 comment added ermanen @psmears I believe it depends on the usage and context as folk has multiple senses/usages.
Sep 15, 2022 at 9:52 comment added psmears "Folk" in the singular is perfectly common and normal (at least here in the UK); "folks" comes across as a little colloquial/affected. But I'm not sure it works here, because even in the singular is meaning is always plural ("people").
Sep 15, 2022 at 9:42 comment added ermanen I've posted this answer because the OP agreed in the question comments that folk is an apt word when I first posted as a comment and asked if it works for the intended approach. David's answer is even better though.
Sep 15, 2022 at 9:31 history answered ermanen CC BY-SA 4.0