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Is the sentencethis usage of "know to be" correct - "They want to eat food they know to be good for them."them"?

My previous, similar question was closed as not very appropriately asked. But "Phoenix's" comments turned out to be a great answer.

Is thisIn the following sentence [They want to eat food they know to be good for them.] correct? I mean, could we useis the construction 'know+to+infinitive' in this sentenceknow + to + infinitive grammatical?

They want to eat food they know to be good for them.

The dictionary says that 'know"know to do something'something" is a correct construction. But can it be used in the above example?

If correct, areis the meaningsmeaning of the above sentence and the following one - [Theysimilar/identical to "They want to eat food they know is good for them.], similar/identicalthem"? If not, what's the difference? If yes, how do they sound to a native speaker? To me, as a non-native speaker, the "...know is good..." one sounds OK, but the "...know to be good..." one is sort of clumsy.

Thanks a lot to the one who will answer and I hope the moderators will not close the question again ^^

Is the sentence correct - "They want to eat food they know to be good for them."?

My previous, similar question was closed as not very appropriately asked. But "Phoenix's" comments turned out to be a great answer.

Is this sentence [They want to eat food they know to be good for them.] correct? I mean, could we use the construction 'know+to+infinitive' in this sentence? The dictionary says that 'know to do something' is a correct construction. But can it be used in the above example?

If correct, are the meanings of the above sentence and the following one - [They want to eat food they know is good for them.], similar/identical? If not, what's the difference? If yes, how do they sound to a native speaker? To me, as a non-native speaker, the "...know is good..." one sounds OK, but the "...know to be good..." one is sort of clumsy.

Thanks a lot to the one who will answer and I hope the moderators will not close the question again ^^

Is this usage of "know to be" correct "They want to eat food they know to be good for them"?

In the following sentence, is the construction know + to + infinitive grammatical?

They want to eat food they know to be good for them.

The dictionary says that "know to do something" is a correct construction. But can it be used in the above example?

If correct, is the meaning of the sentence similar/identical to "They want to eat food they know is good for them"? If not, what's the difference? If yes, how do they sound to a native speaker? To me as a non-native speaker, the "...know is good..." one sounds OK, but the "...know to be good..." one is sort of clumsy.

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source | link

Is the sentence correct - "They want to eat food they know to be good for them."?

My previous, similar question was closed as not very appropriately asked. But "Phoenix's" comments turned out to be a great answer.

Is this sentence [They want to eat food they know to be good for them.] correct? I mean, could we use the construction 'know+to+infinitive' in this sentence? The dictionary says that 'know to do something' is a correct construction. But can it be used in the above example?

If correct, are the meanings of the above sentence and the following one - [They want to eat food they know is good for them.], similar/identical? If not, what's the difference? If yes, how do they sound to a native speaker? To me, as a non-native speaker, the "...know is good..." one sounds OK, but the "...know to be good..." one is sort of clumsy.

Thanks a lot to the one who will answer and I hope the moderators will not close the question again ^^