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May 12, 2020 at 21:26 comment added user173897 English spelling is not especially relevant though because the Hebrew spelling and pronunciation match with those of the other specified words (I am taking this on faith - I do not personally attest for this claim). The other words changed by the time that they made it to modern English. Why did "hallelujah" not do so?
Mar 25, 2020 at 20:06 comment added Omar and Lorraine @JohnLawler Still, what does it have to do with my question? My question is about pronunciation and etymology.
Mar 25, 2020 at 17:42 comment added John Lawler How about "English spelling sort of represents English pronunciation"?
Mar 25, 2020 at 16:07 comment added user91988 @JohnLawler Except it sort of does. That's the entire reason English is so tough. Saying spelling doesn't represent pronunciation is highly misleading and doesn't make sense. Tired of seeing that quote everywhere like it actually means something.
Mar 25, 2020 at 3:35 review Close votes
Mar 30, 2020 at 3:05
Mar 24, 2020 at 12:56 history edited Omar and Lorraine CC BY-SA 4.0
added 48 characters in body
Mar 24, 2020 at 11:17 comment added TRiG At a guess (comment, not answer) it's because Hallelujah is not Hebrew → English, but Hebrew → Greek → English.
Mar 24, 2020 at 3:42 history became hot network question
Mar 24, 2020 at 0:00 history tweeted twitter.com/StackEnglish/status/1242239867788177409
Mar 23, 2020 at 21:45 comment added Yosef Baskin One point I am not sure I am seeing yet is that Hebrew does not own any J sound. Today if you want to write George, for example, you have to put an apostrophe after the G letter (Gimmel) and the reader adjusts (G'eorg'e). For the French J, the same treatment starts with the Z letter (Zayin).
Mar 23, 2020 at 21:35 comment added Omar and Lorraine @JohnLawler The only thing I have come to expect from English spelling is batcrap crazy. The question is not about spelling though, it's about sound-change and pronunciation. Isn't it?
Mar 23, 2020 at 21:32 history edited Omar and Lorraine CC BY-SA 4.0
edited title
Mar 23, 2020 at 20:30 answer added herisson timeline score: 15
Mar 23, 2020 at 20:28 answer added Greybeard timeline score: 12
Mar 23, 2020 at 19:53 comment added John Lawler The reason is that English spelling does not represent English pronunciation. Once you understand that, you won't expect so much from it.
Mar 23, 2020 at 19:53 comment added nohat FWIW, OED shows the spellings halleluya, halleluia, and halaluiah were used in English prior to the spelling with J.
Mar 23, 2020 at 19:36 history asked Omar and Lorraine CC BY-SA 4.0