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douyu
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  1. Europe hardly had any museums before the 19th century.
  2. Europe hardly had any museums before the close theof eighteenth century.

I understand two sentences that the first means before any time of 19th century, the second means before late 18th century, but my friend think the two sentences are same, both mean before late 18th century. do you think Which one understand right?

  1. Europe hardly had any museums before the 19th century.
  2. Europe hardly had any museums before the close the eighteenth century.

I understand two sentences that the first means before any time of 19th century, the second means before late 18th century, but my friend think the two sentences are same, both mean before late 18th century. do you think Which one understand right?

  1. Europe hardly had any museums before the 19th century.
  2. Europe hardly had any museums before the close of eighteenth century.

I understand two sentences that the first means before any time of 19th century, the second means before late 18th century, but my friend think the two sentences are same, both mean before late 18th century. do you think Which one understand right?

Source Link
douyu
  • 135
  • 6

Before the 19th century the same meaning as before the close of the eighteenth century?

  1. Europe hardly had any museums before the 19th century.
  2. Europe hardly had any museums before the close the eighteenth century.

I understand two sentences that the first means before any time of 19th century, the second means before late 18th century, but my friend think the two sentences are same, both mean before late 18th century. do you think Which one understand right?