Timeline for Why do we use zero infinitives with make, let, have?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jun 14, 2020 at 18:17 | history | edited | Edwin Ashworth | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 41 characters in body; edited title
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| Apr 24, 2018 at 22:16 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackEnglish/status/988904548021555205 | ||
| Apr 24, 2018 at 15:49 | comment | added | Lambie | The third operator in his grammatical analysis is: V+ ING ("I love playing tennis"). A similar structure exists in French: make someone do something: (pronoun) faire faire quelque chose. And also in Spanish, etc. So, this causative is not limited to English. | |
| Apr 24, 2018 at 15:43 | comment | added | Lambie | There is a school of linguistics that calls this a null operator ( V Ø V). And contrasts it with V TO V ("to infinitive). So the difference between "I made him do it" and "I make chairs to sell in the market" is that the first points to a verbal notion (the subject connects "directly" with the idea expressed by the verb) and is not a predicate, while the second does have a predicate with which the subject has a "second degree" relationship. These ideas come from Henri Adamczewski, whose work have not been translated into English, unfortunately. | |
| Apr 24, 2018 at 14:42 | answer | added | John Lawler | timeline score: 3 | |
| Apr 24, 2018 at 13:03 | comment | added | tchrist♦ | Ask is not a causative verb. | |
| Apr 24, 2018 at 11:16 | review | First posts | |||
| Apr 24, 2018 at 12:32 | |||||
| Apr 24, 2018 at 11:15 | history | asked | user295094 | CC BY-SA 3.0 |