Timeline for 18th Century British-English - "Know not" vs "Don't know"
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Jan 28, 2022 at 2:30 | comment | added | Acccumulation | Are you saying that "I am not known to her, either" is another way of saying "She doesn't know me either"? Those mean very different things. | |
Jul 31, 2017 at 14:48 | comment | added | sxpmaths | True - at least Austen was growing up in the late 1700s, so I wouldn't have expected language to change too much at least in that period. I think the education and social standing of the character in the OPs question would be relevant to finding the most appropriate answer. I've found an earlier reference (1734), perhaps more relevant to conversational style. | |
Jul 31, 2017 at 14:48 | history | edited | sxpmaths | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Added an additional reference from 1734, supporting the use of "doesn't".
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Jul 31, 2017 at 13:09 | comment | added | marcellothearcane | Interesting. This is a little later than the specified years (1700s) - do you think that English became more sophisticated during the Victorian Era, or was this language still used a century earlier? | |
Jul 31, 2017 at 11:11 | history | answered | sxpmaths | CC BY-SA 3.0 |