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Jan 28, 2022 at 2:30 comment added Acccumulation Are you saying that "I am not known to her, either" is another way of saying "She doesn't know me either"? Those mean very different things.
Jul 31, 2017 at 14:48 comment added sxpmaths True - at least Austen was growing up in the late 1700s, so I wouldn't have expected language to change too much at least in that period. I think the education and social standing of the character in the OPs question would be relevant to finding the most appropriate answer. I've found an earlier reference (1734), perhaps more relevant to conversational style.
Jul 31, 2017 at 14:48 history edited sxpmaths CC BY-SA 3.0
Added an additional reference from 1734, supporting the use of "doesn't".
Jul 31, 2017 at 13:09 comment added marcellothearcane Interesting. This is a little later than the specified years (1700s) - do you think that English became more sophisticated during the Victorian Era, or was this language still used a century earlier?
Jul 31, 2017 at 11:11 history answered sxpmaths CC BY-SA 3.0