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Sep 12, 2019 at 3:14 comment added Kedaram subramanian I read some books on the table. 'some' refers to plurality, but also 'individuality'. I did not know how many, but I can identify the books I read. What is the staus of 'some'?
Jan 2, 2018 at 10:52 answer added JK2 timeline score: 0
Apr 13, 2017 at 12:38 history edited CommunityBot
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Oct 8, 2016 at 0:12 comment added user50720 This question has been repeated on redd.it/52nm5e
Aug 24, 2014 at 3:47 history edited Daniel CC BY-SA 3.0
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Aug 24, 2014 at 3:42 history edited Daniel CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 25, 2011 at 3:04 comment added Neil Coffey N.B. In considering this, be careful not to conflate two different situations, one where a bare nominal is possible, and one where a quantifier such as "some" is used. For example, consider: "(Some) children were playing on the swings; they were called Daniel and Peter". Depending on whether or not you insert the word "some" determines whether it sounds odd to include the second part of the sentence. So "indefinite" and "indeterminate" aren't necessarily the same thing.
Jul 29, 2011 at 14:21 history edited Daniel CC BY-SA 3.0
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Jul 25, 2011 at 15:22 vote accept Daniel
Jul 25, 2011 at 14:20 comment added Daniel OK. The only difference I see is that Acc is after Voc instead of Dat. Interesting.
Jul 25, 2011 at 14:16 comment added Alain Pannetier Φ @drm65. I learned Ancient Greek mainly in France and briefly when I was a pupil in Sevenoaks Kent. In France, the cases order in which the declensions are taught is "Nom [voc], Acc, Gen, Dat [abl]". I know it's different in the UK and the US. Plus we pronounce "th" as /t/.
Jul 25, 2011 at 14:07 comment added Daniel @Alain: I learned "ὁ, τοῦ, τῷ, τόν"; NGDA. Isn't that how it usually is?
Jul 25, 2011 at 13:09 history edited Daniel
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Jul 24, 2011 at 16:58 comment added Alain Pannetier Φ @Cerberus, My answer was deleted because I did not have time to finish it. I'm back in a hotel with poor Internet connectivity - painful. However, you're right about the Greek definite articles. How much time did I spend repeating "ὁ, τόν, τοῦ, τῷ" at school.
Jul 24, 2011 at 15:24 comment added CesarGon As far as I know, most Latin-derived languages have separate singular and plural definite and indefinite articles. It's a common feature in (some) indoeuropean languages.
Jul 24, 2011 at 15:19 comment added Cerberus - Reinstate Monica @MrHen: There can be reasons why, contrary to what one might expect, a certain feature never developed. In this case, Alain's deleted answer explain it it very nicely and informatively, I should think.
Jul 24, 2011 at 14:41 answer added Tim timeline score: -1
Jul 24, 2011 at 11:14 answer added Peter Shor timeline score: 3
Jul 24, 2011 at 3:36 comment added Cerberus - Reinstate Monica @Alain: You must undelete your answer! It was excellent: I was going to answer something like that. P.S. The Greeks did have articles, just no indefinite ones.
Jul 24, 2011 at 3:09 comment added FumbleFingers @MrHen: Colin Fine says Maori has a plural indefinite article, so it's not like the concept is meaningless. And the fact that we call the/a/an the definite/indefinite articles suggests they have much in common. In which case it's potentially enlightening to examine things they don't have in common, such as the ability to take a plural subject.
Jul 23, 2011 at 20:08 answer added compman timeline score: 6
Jul 23, 2011 at 19:28 comment added MrHen How are we supposed to answer why something isn't?
Jul 23, 2011 at 19:21 answer added avpaderno timeline score: 2
Jul 23, 2011 at 18:34 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackEnglish/status/94837857302228992
Jul 23, 2011 at 18:31 answer added Alain Pannetier Φ timeline score: 37
Jul 23, 2011 at 17:43 answer added GEdgar timeline score: -2
Jul 23, 2011 at 16:45 answer added FumbleFingers timeline score: 11
Jul 23, 2011 at 16:30 answer added Robusto timeline score: 0
Jul 23, 2011 at 16:00 history asked Daniel CC BY-SA 3.0