Timeline for What is it called phonetically, when Americans change the pronunciation of "pronunciation" to "pro-*noun*-ciation"?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jun 9, 2011 at 0:56 | comment | added | MrHen | @Kosmonaut: Without more information, it wouldn't be possible to tell if this is happening to other words around Billare. But yeah, very good point. | |
| Jun 9, 2011 at 0:18 | comment | added | Kosmonaut | @jyc23: Actually I just finished composing my answer :) | |
| Jun 9, 2011 at 0:07 | comment | added | jyc23 | @Kosmonaut, perhaps your comment should be an independent answer? It seems to me to be quite a reasonable explanation. | |
| Jun 9, 2011 at 0:00 | comment | added | Kosmonaut | This isn't a vowel shift if it happens with one word — it should occur with lots of words in similar contexts. It clearly looks like a morphological issue (i.e. stem alternation, or lack thereof) and not a phonological one. | |
| Jun 8, 2011 at 20:46 | history | answered | MrHen | CC BY-SA 3.0 |