Timeline for Difference between "choose not to do 'x'" and "choose to not do 'x'"? [duplicate]
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Sep 23, 2015 at 14:12 | history | closed |
FumbleFingers RegDwigнt |
Duplicate of Order of "not" with infinitive | |
| Sep 22, 2015 at 4:57 | vote | accept | Jacob Holloway | ||
| Sep 20, 2015 at 9:44 | answer | added | Barid Baran Acharya | timeline score: 1 | |
| Sep 18, 2015 at 0:41 | answer | added | alanmanderson | timeline score: -1 | |
| Sep 17, 2015 at 17:41 | review | Close votes | |||
| Sep 23, 2015 at 14:12 | |||||
| Sep 17, 2015 at 17:32 | answer | added | AboAmmar | timeline score: 0 | |
| Sep 17, 2015 at 17:24 | comment | added | John Lawler | There is no difference in meaning, only in syntax. The not, like all operators with a focus, may go either immediately before its focussed constituent (in this case, before do bad things), or it may go immediately before any constituent that contains the focus (in this case, before to do bad things, since the infinitive clause starting with to contains the focussed verb phrase do bad things. Of course, every time you move the negative up one constituent, you introduce ambiguities because there's more stuff the negative could focus on. So it's not good practice in writing. | |
| Sep 17, 2015 at 17:17 | history | asked | Jacob Holloway | CC BY-SA 3.0 |