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Jun 15, 2020 at 7:40 history edited CommunityBot
Commonmark migration
Sep 18, 2015 at 8:07 vote accept CommunityBot
Sep 17, 2015 at 20:41 answer added Michael Papademetriou timeline score: 0
Sep 17, 2015 at 18:23 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackEnglish/status/644577530205335552
Sep 17, 2015 at 16:10 history edited user66974 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 17, 2015 at 16:01 answer added choster timeline score: 6
Sep 17, 2015 at 15:49 history edited user66974 CC BY-SA 3.0
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Sep 17, 2015 at 15:28 answer added Emma Dash timeline score: 3
Sep 17, 2015 at 15:15 comment added Mitch Josh, the gap is in the particular dimension. There's visual vs tactile (latinate), but optic vs haptic (Greek). Aural, auditory, auricular may have been a wrong choice (all latinate) but physicians weren't necessarily consistent.
Sep 17, 2015 at 15:04 comment added user66974 @Mitch. wasn't 'tactile' already availabe at that time? etymonline.com/index.php?term=tactile
Sep 17, 2015 at 15:00 comment added Mitch It was probably coined to fill out a lexical gap: optic, aural, olfactory,... It has been popular since in those circles where touch as a sense is important, eg medicine (neurology), perception in psychology.
Sep 17, 2015 at 14:42 history asked user66974 CC BY-SA 3.0