Timeline for "will" vs "shall" in the movie Pride and Prejudice
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
8 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Apr 21, 2015 at 20:11 | comment | added | Peter Shor | In Jane Austen's day, I shall was no intent or weak intent, and I will was strong intent. (And of course, the line between them was very fuzzy.) So if the screenplay is using Jane Austen's grammar, there is some intent there, but you can only deduce that from context. (There may be understatement involved here.) | |
| Apr 21, 2015 at 20:07 | history | edited | Marius Hancu | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 83 characters in body
|
| Apr 21, 2015 at 20:07 | comment | added | Marius Hancu | @PeterShor I inserted a clarification. My equivalence was between the old "I shall wear it" and today's "I will wear it." Certainly it's in the main futurity, but hides a bit of intent, IMO. | |
| Apr 21, 2015 at 13:51 | comment | added | Peter Shor | Often, you could use either, but in some cases, such as "I will/shall never see her again", there's a big distinction. "I will": I will refuse to see her; "I shall": I shall be unable to see her (even if I want to). | |
| Apr 21, 2015 at 13:43 | comment | added | Peter Shor | The usual distinction in those days was "I shall wear it": normal future. "I will wear it": strong intention/volition on the part of the speaker. So you would say "I shall be thrown in prison" and not "I will be thrown in prison". (Unless you actually wanted to be thrown in prison. | |
| Apr 20, 2015 at 13:51 | comment | added | Marius Hancu | So, what's your reading? | |
| Apr 20, 2015 at 13:44 | comment | added | Peter Shor | What??? "I shall wear it" is the same as "I will wear it"? Not in Jane Austen's time. | |
| Apr 19, 2015 at 17:10 | history | answered | Marius Hancu | CC BY-SA 3.0 |