Timeline for Is there an etymological relationship between "obvious" and "obviate"
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
5 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Apr 16, 2015 at 22:12 | comment | added | user50720 | Supernal answer! | |
| Feb 11, 2015 at 20:51 | comment | added | Janus Bahs Jacquet | Depends on the pair, surely. I’d think of slaughter or rested (as nouns) as more active than deceased or slept, for example, regardless of word classes. But this is a wholly different meaning of active than the one I was quipping about. :-) | |
| Feb 11, 2015 at 20:38 | comment | added | ScotM | Yes, which is more active: a past participle in the passive voice or a noun? Passive past participle by a nose! | |
| Feb 11, 2015 at 18:23 | comment | added | Janus Bahs Jacquet | There’s something delightfully oxymoronic, yet perfectly logical really, about “the more active past [passive] participle”. | |
| Feb 11, 2015 at 18:20 | history | answered | ScotM | CC BY-SA 3.0 |