Timeline for Which is correct: “I’m done” or “I have finished”?
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| Mar 4, 2017 at 20:59 | comment | added | herisson | I see. I'm similarly unsure about this, which is why I downvoted. It seems the "be + past participle" construction was pretty restricted in Old and Middle English; I don't know that much about it, but I looked at the following paper: ling.auf.net/lingbuzz/000588. There may also be relevant references in the following article, but I haven't had a chance to look for them yet: microsyntax.sites.yale.edu/done-my-homework | |
| Mar 4, 2017 at 20:48 | comment | added | Anonym | @sumelic Since it's been three years, I'm afraid I can't. Truth be told, I'm no longer sure whether to be done existed in Old English at all, only that it parallels a common Old English construction. I'd say I have a tad more academic rigor these days. O how the years change us. | |
| Mar 4, 2017 at 17:38 | comment | added | herisson | Can you please provide evidence that this expression with "to be + done" existed in Old English? | |
| May 26, 2015 at 22:14 | comment | added | Hot Licks | Back when I actually did things, I would very often, in response to a query about progress on some project, respond "I'm done with that" or something similar. "I have finished" would sound rather over-formal in many contexts. | |
| Feb 8, 2014 at 23:16 | comment | added | user16723 | The link from Edwin Ashworth's answer claims that "I have done [my work]" was replaced by "I am done [with my work]" ca. 1700 in Ireland, Scotland, and America. If it's connected to OE as you say, then maybe it's an archaism that survived and later killed off the newfangled usage in those areas. | |
| Feb 8, 2014 at 22:09 | history | answered | Anonym | CC BY-SA 3.0 |