Timeline for Why does the "e" in judge vanish in the word "judgment"?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
10 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Aug 2, 2013 at 14:52 | vote | accept | rurouniwallace | ||
| Mar 1, 2013 at 10:32 | comment | added | RegDwigнt | @tchrist not necessarily the minority; the related question linked by the OP himself actually demonstrates that you might end up in the majority. In fact I would have closed this as a dupe as soon as it got posted, if not for it being a three-part question. The third part is answered exhaustively by the first sentence of John's comment. So the way I see it, what's still left is whether there's a name for this specific kind of spelling variation. Which I doubt. | |
| Mar 1, 2013 at 5:18 | history | edited | coleopterist |
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| Mar 1, 2013 at 5:01 | answer | added | GiHe | timeline score: 3 | |
| Mar 1, 2013 at 1:29 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackEnglish/status/307301556817125378 | ||
| Mar 1, 2013 at 0:37 | comment | added | tchrist♦ | You are welcome to spell it judgement (and acknowledgement for that matter) if you prefer. True, you will be in the minority, but you will not be wrong. | |
| Mar 1, 2013 at 0:32 | comment | added | Blessed Geek | English is somewhat an ideographical creole, where accepted traditions frequently took root from a primeval point of error. It is frequently not written "the way it should be pronounced". | |
| Mar 1, 2013 at 0:06 | comment | added | John Lawler | Pronunciation comes first, then comes writing. The E drops because that's the way the spelling goes. Spelling does not represent speech and is not regular. Learn the pronunciation and the spelling separately, like the gender of a German noun. | |
| Feb 28, 2013 at 23:58 | comment | added | rurouniwallace | Related question: english.stackexchange.com/questions/1623/… | |
| Feb 28, 2013 at 23:58 | history | asked | rurouniwallace | CC BY-SA 3.0 |