0

Given its first use:

"I don't know why, it's a perfectly cromulent word."

The verb is "is" (=> it's) and the noun is "word". Since cromulent links them both and directly addresses the noun, isn't that the definition of a Predicate Adjective?

Has it been used in any other way?

Improve this question
3
  • Google reports 91K instances of is a cromulent [word, whatever] but only 55 instances of is cromulent to [do something]. For comparison, is a stupid [thing to do, whatever] gets 300M hits, and is stupid to [do it] gets 16M. Does that answer your question by showing that cromulent isn't often used as flexibly as a functionally similar word like stupid?
    – FumbleFingers
    Jan 30, 2013 at 5:29
  • @FumbleFingers - I can see what you mean, although I'm not sure a GoogleFight is a fair measure of er, correct use. Thanks for the stats, though :)
    – BryanH
    Jan 30, 2013 at 19:56
  • Well, with a neologism like this, "correct" usage is obviously defined by "actual" usage, so I think it's as good a mechanism as any.
    – FumbleFingers
    Jan 30, 2013 at 21:28

2 Answers 2

Reset to default
6

No, it is not being used in the predicative role / position:

  1. Bill is skillful. Link verb + predicative adjective.
  2. Bill is a plumber. Link verb + predicative noun group.
  3. Bill is a skillful plumber. Link verb + predicative noun group, where noun group contains an attributive adjective.

3'. Bill is a really skillful plumber. Degree modifier (intensifier) added to predicative noun group.

Improve this answer
0
3

In English, in any clause of the shape
- [Noun Phrase [be Adjective]]
the Adjective is a Predicate Adjective.

It's an Adjective and it's the Predicate.
That's the definition of Predicate Adjective.

In exactly the same way, in any clause of the shape
- [Noun Phrase [be Noun Phrase]]
the second Noun Phrase is a Predicate Noun.

It's a Noun and it's the Predicate.
That's the definition of Predicate Noun.

This works for any noun or any adjective, whether it's artificial or natural.
This is grammar, not dictionary.

Improve this answer
5
  • And, by the way, Predicate Adjectives do not "modify" anything. They're predicates; everything else "modifies" them.
    – John Lawler
    Jan 29, 2013 at 21:40
  • I suppose your "be" is just the lexical equivalent of = or ≈ (that second one meaning is approximately equal to), so it applies equally to verbs like seems, appears, looks, etc.
    – FumbleFingers
    Jan 30, 2013 at 0:14
  • Oh, no. The verb be in this context has no reference, meaning, or lexical equivalent at all. It's entirely a dummy verb, doing nothing more than opening a place (usually contracted, of course) for the tense to appear. No semantics at all. Totally syntactic, automatic, and meaningless, like Do-Support.
    – John Lawler
    Jan 30, 2013 at 0:30
  • Umm... does that space have to at least be filled by a verb?
    – FumbleFingers
    Jan 30, 2013 at 2:58
  • 1
    It has to be filled by something that can be inflected for tense, which means a verb; but which one is specified by rule: be + -ing for Progressive, be + -en for Passive, have + -en for Perfect, be + Adj, be + NP, be + PP, etc.
    – John Lawler
    Jan 30, 2013 at 3:19

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.