1,426 reputation
11029
bio website seamusbradley.net
location Munich, Germany
age 28
visits member for 4 years, 4 months
seen Dec 6 '13 at 13:36

profile for Seamus on Stack Exchange, a network of free, community-driven Q&A sites

I am a postdoc in philosophy.

I contribute to a blog for philosophers who use LaTeX. If you fall in to that niche, check it out: PhilTeX. (The blog will be of use to all kind of humanities scholars using LaTeX, I imagine, but it was started by, and is run by philosophers...) The blog is currently defunct, but may be resurrected soon.

I made this beamer colour change package that slowly changes the colour of structure elements of beamer presentations. Feedback welcome. I also made this moreenum package which adds new enumeration options. The TeX goodies page of my website includes some other bits and bobs I've done.


Jan
29
awarded  Popular Question
Nov
29
accepted Sam Weller in The Pickwick Papers: What accent is Dickens portraying?
Nov
29
asked Sam Weller in The Pickwick Papers: What accent is Dickens portraying?
Aug
29
awarded  Yearling
Jul
10
awarded  Good Answer
Jul
1
awarded  Popular Question
May
26
awarded  Popular Question
Apr
7
awarded  Nice Question
Mar
31
comment What does “What are you up to?” mean?
@BenLee The rules of grammar Yoda does not adhere to.
Feb
29
answered Mass nouns and counts nouns. Does getting it wrong ever matter?
Feb
17
awarded  Nice Answer
Feb
13
comment Is the word “epic” being used correctly these days?
This question is AWESOME. I am in awe of it.
Jan
21
comment Is there a correct gender-neutral, singular pronoun (“his” versus “her” versus “their”)?
@tchrist What is "it" if not a gender neutral pronoun? What does agency have to do with a grammatical fact about whether a pronoun discloses a gender? I'm not suggesting "it" as an answer here. I'm merely pointing out that what the OP wants might not be best described as a "gender neutral pronoun". It was pedantic, and possibly misguided, but what you said doesn't speak to the point I was making.
Dec
8
comment Why did “insofar” become a word, not “insofaras”?
@FumbleFingers I don't think this is a duplicate. I am specifically asking about why "insofar" is a word and "insofaras" is not. It is certainly a related question, but it is not the same question.
Dec
7
comment Why did only English undergo the Great Vowel Shift, making pronunciation stray so far from spelling?
Native German speakers regularly mispronounce certain German words? Sounds a little bit presrciptivist there. Surely however they regularly pronounce them is the right pronounciation?
Dec
7
revised Why did “insofar” become a word, not “insofaras”?
added 319 characters in body
Dec
7
comment Why did “insofar” become a word, not “insofaras”?
The point is this: long and regular association of these words in this order: "in so far" led to them being written as one word. Why didn't the same process produce "insofaras" given that almost all case of the former are cases of the latter?
Dec
7
accepted Words with roots from different languages
Dec
7
accepted If I help “evacuate” a building, what am I doing to the people?
Dec
7
accepted How does a word come to have two completely opposite meanings?