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21m
comment Are there any “fake” French words used in English?
If "the customer is always right", who's the boss?
55m
revised “Dial M for Murder” meaning
edited body
1h
answered “Dial M for Murder” meaning
1h
comment “Dial M for Murder” meaning
It's (deliberately or not) obscure to current-day native English speakers. It may have been less so in 1954, when everybody had heard slogans and catch-phrases which we've all forgotten now.
3h
comment Why did final -ie become so popular during early Modern English?
@Tim: Early Middle English may have been heavily influenced by French, but by the 16th century (which the OP is asking about), it was a completely different language.
13h
comment Why did final -ie become so popular during early Modern English?
Do you have any evidence for this statement? (Aside from the French pronunciation, which is a completely different language).
13h
comment Which is more common for everyday use?
They are both fine, and might be used in slightly different contexts. See this discussion.
23h
revised “available (availability)” vs. “valid (validity)” for “having sufficient power or efficacy” in AmEng vernacular
added 132 characters in body
1d
comment “available (availability)” vs. “valid (validity)” for “having sufficient power or efficacy” in AmEng vernacular
@Andrew: which uses both valid and available. Nice.
1d
comment “available (availability)” vs. “valid (validity)” for “having sufficient power or efficacy” in AmEng vernacular
@Andrew: If you google, you can find this usage in the form of phrases like "return ticket available for six months". This appears to be mainly an outdated British usage, which is still extant in foreign countries and the Caribbean.
1d
revised “available (availability)” vs. “valid (validity)” for “having sufficient power or efficacy” in AmEng vernacular
added 53 characters in body
1d
answered “available (availability)” vs. “valid (validity)” for “having sufficient power or efficacy” in AmEng vernacular
1d
comment Why is “bream” pronounced as “brim”?
Okay ... there's another one: "creek/crick". But the OED traces this pronunciation back to 16th century England.
1d
comment Has Usage defeated Grammar, so that “none” is now plural and “data” is singular?
Quickly? In this case, not so quickly. Shakespeare used plural "none" ... "None are so surely caught, when they are catch'd, as wit turn'd fool." And the OED has instances from 50 years earlier.
1d
comment Pronouncing vote as voyt?
They don't say voit. British people pronounce long o differently from Americans, and quite distinctively, but it sounds nothing like voit to me.
1d
comment The “wrought /wreaked havoc” misunderstanding
The phrase wrought havoc is the past tense of work havoc. In 1900, the two most common phrases were "wrought havoc" and "work havoc". So it's the phrases wreak havoc and wreaked havoc that were introduced because of the misunderstanding.
1d
comment Is a second 'is' in a compound sentence redundant?
The first is is a main verb, and the second is is an auxiliary verb. Since they're different grammatically, it's best to repeat the is.
1d
comment “How far” vs “How long”
@J.R. Distance is not length. "How far is the Missisippi River" and "How long is the Missisippi River" are questions with totally different answers. The first means "How far do I have to walk to get to the Missisippi River?" The second means "How far will I have gone if I board a raft at Lake Itaska and ride it to the Gulf of Mexico?"
1d
comment “used to go”or “went”
"I think this isn't a good question" and "I don't think this is a good question" are both correct, and more or less synonymous. The second may be somewhat more common.
1d
comment Reflexive pronoun of someone
The grammar in the rest of the sentence needs correction as well: "It is really hard for someone who has no respect for (their/his or her) own values to be respected by others."