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2d
awarded  Enlightened
2d
awarded  Nice Answer
2d
comment What is the early modern equivalent of ' I think '
I suspect you are thinking about the archaic word methinks.
Jan
25
answered it's vs their (country)
Jan
25
comment regarding those who use paranomasia, puns, and double-entendre
Language is what it is, not what you or anybody else would like it to be.
Jan
25
answered Idiom or phrase meaning
Jan
25
answered Can “most of which” be used in the beginning of a sentence?
Jan
22
answered Help me with the expression “to make sense”
Jan
22
comment “Their ”Is being used in the below sentence for whom? Please reply fast
Indeed. The conclusion is probably right, but the argument is utterly wrong. Their is an anaphor (word that refers back), and the rules for determining what it refers to are difficult, and don't necessarily give a definite answer. But removing or adding words before it can certainly affect what it refers to, and there really is no reason for supposing that it won't.
Jan
22
comment Order of “not” with infinitive
@WS2: Ah, that's a different matter. Children the world over learn that it is sometimes advantageous to speak a certain way to authorities, and there is no harm in helping them master that skill. That's very different from claiming that there is only one proper way to speak and anything else is "incorrect".
Jan
22
awarded  tenses
Jan
21
comment He dies when he is
The OP said they were reading a story.
Jan
21
comment Order of “not” with infinitive
@WS2: I sympathise for the systematic child abuse which was inflicted on you, in service of the lie that there was something wrong with your command of your native language.
Jan
21
comment How did auxiliary verbs develop? e.g. “is” “has”
It's more complicated than that. The verb is, with its am, art, is conjugation (and with a separate historical origin from be and also from was) is ancient throughout Indo-European. But in some I-E languages (notably Russian), it is almost always omitted in present-tense sentences about identity, charactistics or location: just like Hebrew.
Jan
21
comment He dies when he is
I don't think the historic present has anything to do with the events being fixed and unchanging: on the contrary, I think it makes it more immediate and momentary.
Jan
21
comment what does “I am not feeling up for it” mean? when can you use this?
Why the downvote? Hot Licks says it is familiar to them - fine. But it is not idiomatic for me.
Jan
21
comment collocation with over, down, out
People in Edinburgh and Glasgow use the phrase go/come through to mean to travel from one of those cities to the other (just go through without an object, I mean). I've never heard this from anybody else, but I have heard Glaswegians use the same idiom referring to other pairs of cities, eg Manchester and Leeds; they were not necessarily understood.
Jan
21
comment what does “I am not feeling up for it” mean? when can you use this?
Maybe. Neither the British National Corpus nor the Corpus of Contemporary American English contains a single instance of feel before up for it, though they both have a number of [BE] up for it and [FEEL] up to it.
Jan
21
comment How did auxiliary verbs develop? e.g. “is” “has”
A big part of why you don't have them in Hebrew is that there is no copula. When you say 'ani ochel' that is historically exactly parallel to 'I am eating' - but 'am' is not expressed in Hebrew any more than it is in 'ani moreh' - 'I am a teacher', so you don't think of it as subject+copula+participle, but subject+verb. The other reason you don't have them is that you have all the binyanim (verb forms) which are what make Semitic languages so difficult for Europeans to learn.
Jan
21
answered He dies when he is