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visits member for 3 years, 6 months
seen Feb 14 at 18:15

Dec
17
awarded  Notable Question
Jul
11
comment Is there a word, preferably a verb, that means to exaggerate a point, or idea, to the detriment of the point?
I just saw this now. "Hyperbolize" works quite well––even though it is a verbalization.
Jul
11
accepted Is there a word, preferably a verb, that means to exaggerate a point, or idea, to the detriment of the point?
Apr
24
awarded  Popular Question
Apr
5
asked Is there a word, preferably a verb, that means to exaggerate a point, or idea, to the detriment of the point?
Jan
21
awarded  Yearling
Apr
23
awarded  Scholar
Apr
23
accepted When to nominalize?
Apr
6
answered Does sympathy necessarily mean pity?
Mar
21
comment Non-religious mentions of God (or religious concepts) in the American English language
@John Y. Yeah it is--I tried to cover all the bases.
Mar
19
comment Using contracted forms (“don't”, “let's”) in a formal text
Why shouldn't contracted forms be used in formal reports, letters, etc.? Isn't the "rule," which prohibits using contractions in formal writing, antiquated?
Mar
17
comment Is the word “savage” offensive?
Yeah, think of Montaigne's Of Cannibals. By examining a "savage" tribe in Brazil, he offers a critique of Western civilization. Though, I wouldn't call Rousseau's "noble savage" or Montaigne's "Cannibals" examples of "so-called positive racism." --To do so misses their points. "So-called positive racism" might be better attributed to Hegel (in his Philosophy of History).
Mar
17
answered Is the word “savage” offensive?
Mar
13
answered Heavy usage of synonyms in English or not?
Mar
13
answered Non-religious mentions of God (or religious concepts) in the American English language
Mar
13
awarded  Commentator
Mar
13
comment “I just ate them” and “I've just eaten them” — What's the difference in American and in British?
@brilliant, I guess it depends on where in Americans in your story are from. There may be dialectical differences that account for their misunderstanding. I've never heard of such difficulties. Though, I guess Americans tend to use the present perfect with an imperfect meaning: "I have lived in New York for ten years" or "I have been listening to the radio for the last hour." But this is not always the case: "I have already gone to the store." Here "already" plays the same role as "just" in your example. So where were those Americans from, as I have never heard of such a thing.
Mar
13
answered Using contracted forms (“don't”, “let's”) in a formal text
Mar
12
comment “I just ate them” and “I've just eaten them” — What's the difference in American and in British?
@Colin Fine. I think your response is right on, if brilliant just wanted to ask about the difference between "I ate" and "I have eaten." However, there is no difference in usage between how Americans and Brits use "I ate", or how they use "I have eaten." As an American who lived in England for a year (and frequent the island as often as I can), I am almost positive that these two phrases are used in exactly the same way in both dialects. That is why I thought that brilliant must have been asking about spelling/pronunciation--that's where the differences are between the two.
Mar
12
comment “I just ate them” and “I've just eaten them” — What's the difference in American and in British?
"This distinction doesn't hold for all past tense/past participle forms of verbs." I perhaps should have said most. However, American English does not use "lighted." If you look at ngram, you'll see that "lit" is becoming the most common spelling/pronunciation of the past tense of "light," however, in British English, "lighted was for a time used more frequently than "lit." In American English, "lighted" is seldom, if ever, used. But yeah, often American and British English use the same spelling, i.e. worked. But think of the past tense of "dream"; most British speakers say/write dreamt.