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Apr
9
comment The phrase “be opposed to something” has the same meaning of “oppose something”. How can it be possible?
Suppose that they are Democrats. So the opposed party is the Republican Party. Group members favour the opposed Party. 3a)The opposed party is the Republican Party. 3b)The Republican party is usually opposed by them. 3c)They are opposed to the Republican Party. I feel that the use of opposed in 3c) is opposite to that of 3a) and 3b).
Apr
9
comment The phrase “be opposed to something” has the same meaning of “oppose something”. How can it be possible?
I thought it was a test to prove how much the adjective retains the meaning of the past participle from which it comes from, and the rarerity of its occurence as attributive adjective implied "almost zero". Then, could you explain what the test result shows us?
Apr
9
comment The phrase “be opposed to something” has the same meaning of “oppose something”. How can it be possible?
Do you mean the participle "opposed" failed the test? I know my example of "misuse" is unlikely one. But, it could explain the contrast between the meaning of the participle and that of the predicative adjective. All adjectives derived from past participles that I can think of have the predictable meanings from their origins. On the other hand the meaning of the predicative adjective "opposed" is in a sense opposite to that of the past participle "opposed".
Apr
8
comment The phrase “be opposed to something” has the same meaning of “oppose something”. How can it be possible?
You don't have to apologize. I was not offended. I was just surprised. Maybe, my question is too ambiguous. P.S. use "@username" to notify the person to whom you wrote unless the person is the post author.
Apr
8
comment The phrase “be opposed to something” has the same meaning of “oppose something”. How can it be possible?
Even if 2b is not a passive construction as you pointed out, I can still convince myself of the meaning of the adjective "interested" as the natural extension of the meaning of the past participle "interested". But, I can't do so for "opposed". I suppose the past participle "interested" had become recognized as an adjective over time. What I mean by "misuse" is such a situation where the past participle "opposed" was confused with the present participle "opposing".
Apr
8
comment The phrase “be opposed to something” has the same meaning of “oppose something”. How can it be possible?
2a) Politics doesn't interest me. 2b) I am not interested in politics. 2b has the form of "copular verb+predicate complement". At the same time, it is possible to consider 2b as a passive voice form of 2a and the subject (I) as the patient of the action "interest". On the other hand, there is at least superficially a conflict of semantic role between the subject of 1a (I) and that of 1b (I). So, I thought there was a reason for that. For example, the reason might be that a misuse of the verb "oppose" had been gradually accepted as a legitimate use.
Apr
7
comment The phrase “be opposed to something” has the same meaning of “oppose something”. How can it be possible?
Do you really think that I asked this question because I don't think there are different ways of saying the same thing?
Apr
7
comment The phrase “be opposed to something” has the same meaning of “oppose something”. How can it be possible?
My thinking is as follows: the subject in 1a (I) is the patient of the action "oppose" and the subject in 1b (I) is the agent of the action "oppose". So, 1a and 1b are incompatible. Where did I go wrong?
Apr
7
awarded  Critic
Apr
7
revised The phrase “be opposed to something” has the same meaning of “oppose something”. How can it be possible?
added 14 characters in body
Apr
7
asked The phrase “be opposed to something” has the same meaning of “oppose something”. How can it be possible?
Feb
22
comment Why does “He is as rich as any in our town” mean “He is one of the richest people in our town”?
I thought that "A is as rich as B" means "A doesn't have more money than B has and B doesn't have more money than A has". But this is clearly wrong if two sentences in my question are equivalent. Then, does "A is as rich as B" actually mean "B doesn't have more money than A has" ?
Feb
22
asked Why does “He is as rich as any in our town” mean “He is one of the richest people in our town”?
Feb
21
comment Can I say “No other mountains in Europe are higher than Mont Blanc”?
" A person might choose the singular or plural form to match the number of the mountains that he or she most recently had in mind." interesting! Thank you.
Feb
21
comment Can I say “No other mountains in Europe are higher than Mont Blanc”?
Could you explain why "mountain" in your third example is singular while "mountain" in your fourth example is plural?
Feb
21
asked Can I say “No other mountains in Europe are higher than Mont Blanc”?
Feb
9
revised Under what kind of conditions is a past time adjunct allowed for in experiential perfects?
deleted 1 character in body
Feb
9
comment Under what kind of conditions is a past time adjunct allowed for in experiential perfects?
@CandiedOrange, so is this grammatical? : I have already visited the museum many times when I was a university student.
Feb
9
awarded  Editor
Feb
9
revised Under what kind of conditions is a past time adjunct allowed for in experiential perfects?
added 218 characters in body