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Feb
17
comment Whose sunshine do you belong to?
Same here. Grammar is fine, and even the semantics are okay. The overall gist, though, is definitely weird.
Feb
15
comment Is “come sunrise” right?
This is not a concessive subjunctive, but it is a type of subjunctive that uses inversion, as the concessive sometimes does.
Feb
15
comment Is “come sunrise” right?
You'd do well to look at the examples in the answer here: english.stackexchange.com/questions/214687/…. Note that there are many that parallel the "come X" pattern. I use them in my daily speech.
Feb
15
comment Is “come sunrise” right?
I don't know what to say. I speak English and those forms of inversion are native to me. I've seen them written. I don't really know what else I can do for you at this point if you are choosing to ignore large swaths of reality.
Feb
15
comment Is “come sunrise” right?
See also this: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/English_subjunctive#Inversion. It's fairly common.
Feb
15
comment Is “come sunrise” right?
If it's an absolute construction with the past participle, then I'd expect to see some other verbs do it, no other ones do. I cannot think of a single other situation where we'd have past participle followed by subject. We have plenty of examples of a non-past participle being used (my modal verb examples, etc.). The sole place you are arguing from is that "come" can be present or past participle. That ambiguity is not worth basing an argument on. If any other verb had been in this situation, your answer wouldn't have even been posted.
Feb
15
comment Is “come sunrise” right?
Furthermore, your proposed alternate wording is not commensurate with the actual alternate wording. You can always replace "come morning" with "when morning comes". It's a conditional. That's the natural replacement. An absolute is not called for here, because the clause is dependent on the main clause. With an absolute construction, the opposite is actually true -- thus the name "absolute".
Feb
15
comment Is “come sunrise” right?
It's not "my view", it's the reality of how conditionals work in Germanic languages (which is where you should be looking, not French). In German, for example, you can usually take an "if SUBJECT VERB" construction and turn it into "VERB SUBJECT". This was also true in Old English, and, as I clearly showed, in a restricted way, it remains in Modern English.
Feb
15
comment Article 'a' or 'the'
Both are valid for me, but they mean different things. The first means that I work at some unspecified hospital, more specifically that the kind of place I work at could be described as a hospital. The second implies there's some local or known hospital that people work at, and that's where I work.
Feb
15
comment Is “come sunrise” right?
"come" is not just a past participle; it's also quite clearly the present stem as well. Moreover, this kind of sunjunctive pattern exists elsewhere idiomatically in English: "should he arrive early, I'll have to send someone else", where the word order is VS(O), same as in the OP's example. It can be replaced with "if he should arrive early,...", in much the same way that "come sunrise" can be replaced with "when sunrise comes". Your alternative explanation is unnecessary and not supported by any historical facts.
Feb
1
comment Grammatical structure of the given sentence
Okay, so if they don't have different sources, then now we really need some evidence that they are to be pronounced differently from each other in dialects where the /W/ vs /w/ distinction is maintained. It would be surprising, given that they are of the same origin, if they came to be pronounced differently by such a trifling detail, a change unparalleled in the language.
Feb
1
comment Grammatical structure of the given sentence
Consider that we also use "what" in a similar manner: "what, you think I should keep arguing?"
Feb
1
comment Grammatical structure of the given sentence
Dude, you're the one proposing that they are pronounced differently and that they have different sources. I've seen no proposals elsewhere but here that they have anything but the same source (where's the upstream word, other than "why" that is the source of this interjection?), or that there's any reason to suspect that they are pronounced differently. Given that, the burden of proof is on you to provide evidence of this extraordinary claim.
Jan
31
comment Grammatical structure of the given sentence
They come from the same source and are spelled the same. Some similar examples: "I didn't like it that much", "Whatever" (as a dismissive answer), and all the semantic variants of "yes". Words can have a variety of meanings that can drift a lot over time. Sometimes, it does result in a phonetic split (like "of" vs. "off"). If that's the case, there should be some evidence. Do you really pronounce them differently? Have you measured it with, say, Praat?
Jan
31
comment Phrasal verb “be a thing”
Etymology is certainly incorrect.
Jan
31
comment Grammatical structure of the given sentence
I just don't see any reason why there would be a difference in pronunication in any dialect, given that the words are the same. Can you provide some sources to indicate that there really is such a distinction?
Jan
30
comment Grammatical structure of the given sentence
Uhh, you sure about that pronunciation difference?
Jan
30
awarded  Editor
Jan
30
revised Origin of -(e)s in present indicative third singular
wrong campbell
Jan
26
answered Origin of -(e)s in present indicative third singular