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May
22
comment “Determination of the effects is…” or “The determination of the effects is…” or “Determining the effects is…”
They're all "correct", and mean exactly the same thing. Which one you decide to use is a matter of opinion/stylistic choice.
May
22
comment phrase from a play by Terence: “ne quid nimis”
I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it's about the orthography of Latin.
May
22
comment phrase from a play by Terence: “ne quid nimis”
You might infer something from Google's behaviour when you search for nequid nimis (it says Showing results for ne quid nimis, and offers you the chance to Search instead for nequid nimis).
May
22
comment What does Antichronic mean?
OED records antichronical (Opposed to, or out of, proper chronological order) as "obsolete". They also have the adverbial form antichronically and noun antichronism (both also obsolete), but those are the only three entries between antichristianly and antichthon. That latter being a particularly strange word, defined as A (hypothetical) second Earth on the opposite side of the sun.
May
22
comment A term for two different words whose “multiple senses” share similar or identical meanings (e.g. Peers/Peeps)
Maybe it's stretching a point (but so is OP, since my peeps = my people = the people in my family/social circle is only a slang usage anyway), but sap/tap can both be used in the sense of to draw out (often, liquid), and they can also both mean to strike, hit (though usually if you sap someone, you'd be hitting them a lot harder than if you just tapped them).
May
22
comment Interesting: What's wrong with this sentence
Over 1000 written instances of in 1970 since when imply that not everyone finds the usage "awkward". And that's just for one specific year - doubtless there will be thousands more for different years, and for other ways of referring to a specific point in (past) time. I don't find it at all unusual - it seems perfectly natural to me in all registers, whereas since which time seems to unavoidably carry overtones of "formal" usage.
May
22
comment What is a list of words that can be used to describe tone and not mood and vice versa?
@John: I don't know if tone has a commonly-understood specific meaning in the context of linguistics, but I bet you usually know exactly what you mean by mood in that context. I also suspect modern English has less "moods" than many other languages, but maybe that's just because I assume "subjunctive" is a "mood", and I suspect that's one of the features of English which is becoming less common and thus might eventually disappear.
May
22
comment Hypernym for “goods” and “services”
If you glance through some of 3270 written instances of products including services I think you'll have to agree many of the writers are quite happy to take it for granted services can be a subset of products (even if they feel the need to explicitly spell that out to the reader, in the examples found by that search string). I've no doubt there would be even more contexts where the writer doesn't explicitly point it out, but still expects to be understood.
May
22
comment Non-standard British use of possessive “me”
@ThePopMachine: Actually, some people do both say and write be for by, as in Four be two timber. Four inch by two inch (where that speaker clearly knows what he's doing, but not everyone necessarily would). Even Partridge acknowledges it here
May
22
comment Non-standard British use of possessive “me”
@ThePopMachine: Inevitably there will be some people (even native speakers) who misinterpret what they "hear" other people say, and subsequently promote the "erroneous" usage. Which may rarely or never be "corrected" by others, because they know what word they're expecting to hear (my) so they don't necessarily even notice what's going on. If you like, assuming the actual word me can validly be used instead of my is effectively an "eggcorn" usage.
May
22
comment What is the scientific term for a habit of doing something without realizing it until someone points it out to you?
Are you asking for a specific technical term meaning "unconscious behavior" (an abstract noun to include all such types of behaviour, collectively)? Or an adjective that could be applied to behaviour as an alternative to unconscious?
May
22
comment possible ambiguity of 'he' when two nouns are in use
@AndySemyonov: I'd heard of it, but I didn't know what the rule of 'pronoun-antecedent' meant until now. As that example shows, it's not even necessary that the referent of a pronoun should have appeared anywhere earlier in the text. And I for one don't recognize any value whatsoever in that so-called rule. But it appears you will not be convinced by any number of perfectly natural counter-examples, so I guess we may as well leave it at that.
May
22
comment possible ambiguity of 'he' when two nouns are in use
@AndySemyonov: You don't seem to be responding meaningfully to my comments. My "birth" example is not ambiguous in the least, but OP's actual example is completely ambiguous in and of itself. We can only know what it's supposed to mean because OP tells us in the first sentence of the question. But nothing about the example itself provides any clues as to how to interpret the pronoun. Your point about pronoun should apply to immediately preceding noun is simply mistaken - there is no such principle.
May
22
comment possible ambiguity of 'he' when two nouns are in use
@AndySemyonov: The point was show that given the right semantic/contextual setting - such as my second ("birth") example - we can easily be 100% certain of the referent for each pronoun. Without using any Apply pronoun to immediately-preceding noun principle, which doesn't work there. That example may look tricky to a NNS, but if it was read out loud I doubt most native speakers would even notice anything particularly unusual about it. They'd just automatically / unconsciously make the right connections (probably the only conscious thought would be Ah, right! John's boss must be a woman!).
May
21
comment possible ambiguity of 'he' when two nouns are in use
@Andy: Although Jane had assumed John's boss would give him time off to be present when she gave birth, it turned out the company just couldn't afford it. John told Jane that she was sorry, but she still felt cheated. In all three highlighted cases, the referent is not the immediately preceding noun, and I at least would "blame" anyone for attempting to slavishly apply a fairly irrelevant "principle" whilst ignoring straightforward issues of "credibility". Including the fact that John's boss must be a woman (I'd certainly disparage anyone disposed to ignore that possibility! :)
May
21
comment Non-standard British use of possessive “me”
I can't speak for the US, but it seems to me (unstressed) my reduces to /mə/ or /mɪ/ virtually everywhere in the UK, apart from Scotland, where they're more likely to use /mæ/. The Scottish version is usually written mah, which everyone understands as nothing more than an attempt to replicate the actual sound. It's just that the more widespread versions are usually written as me in "eye dialect", causing some people to assume that represents a different actual word being used. But I agree with you - it's really just a different pronunciation for the word my.
May
21
comment possible ambiguity of 'he' when two nouns are in use
@Andy: I don't think "closest noun" is a particularly relevant factor. To me, semantic/contextual credibility is far more important. So OP's example is completely ambiguous without further context, and I don't see any reason to even speculate on whether he refers to Brahma or Indra. There are no such issues with John told Jane that he was mistaken or John told Jane that she was mistaken. Or John told Jane that he was sorry, come to that (where John told Jane that she was sorry just doesn't make sense, regardless of any such syntactic principles).
May
21
comment Is there a similiar saying for czech “dolů ti pomůže každý, ale nahoru musíš sám” in english?
Arguably Anglophones are more optimistic. We say things like Nothing succeeds like success, and Laugh and the world laughs with you. Cry and you cry alone
May
21
comment Why say 'chai tea'?
Chai is made using different formulas, depending on the region where it is being consumed, but there are a number of standard ingredients: black tea, ginger, cardamom, cinnamon, fennel, clove and black pepper. I'll stick to my standard cuppa cha - optionally with an r, but not an i.
May
20
comment How do you write an idiom (or phrase) in the possessive case?
What @rajah9 said. Would OP seriously consider saying (really, in actual speech, I mean) "What is my name?"'s answer is "Allan" ??!!!