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seen Apr 4 at 5:57

Dec
7
awarded  Commentator
Dec
7
comment Passive clauses without auxiliaries
It took me a couple of moments to parse to die for clothes as an adjective-noun combination! I agree with you on this one though. To me, it seems acceptable as well. The exceptions aside, I think we can still say that in general non-hyphenated multi-word adjectives follow the noun they modify.
Dec
7
comment Passive clauses without auxiliaries
That one seems like a bit of a stretch to me. I guess I'd argue that "Made in Britain" acts as a single adjective that modifies the noun. But I'd never use it as you just did.
Dec
7
comment Neutral term for a person in the same organization
Inappropriate in the sense that it might be used in some situations. I was thinking about the business-to-business case mentioned in the original question.
Dec
7
comment When should I not use a ligature in English typesetting?
I'll have to look into this. Perhaps it was the font I was using that was a problem or perhaps because I was going through XeLaTeX. I'm ignorant enough that I'll blame myself until proven right.
Dec
7
awarded  Critic
Dec
7
comment Passive clauses without auxiliaries
Repetition of my answer? Ok, so it was formatted nicer.
Dec
7
comment When should I not use a ligature in English typesetting?
My experience with LaTeX is that it produces unsearchable ligatures. That being said, I wouldn't be surprised if it actually can produce searchable ligatures and I just don't know it!
Dec
7
awarded  Analytical
Dec
7
comment When should I not use a ligature in English typesetting?
I don't think this is your question, but you shouldn't use ligatures if you expect people to be searching your document in an electronic format. For example, if you use a ligature for the double f in the word efficient then any searches of your document for that word will not produce any results.
Dec
7
awarded  Editor
Dec
7
revised Passive clauses without auxiliaries
added example
Dec
7
answered Passive clauses without auxiliaries
Dec
6
answered Neutral term for a person in the same organization
Dec
6
awarded  Supporter
Dec
5
comment Is there any difference between “has gone” and “went” in this context?
Interestingly, in my dialect, that "error" would almost never occur. To us, there is a very distinct difference between has been and has gone, which perhaps isn't so pronounced in your (UK, I presume) variant of English. On top of that, we would also say that the UK is in Europe to begin with, but that's another matter!
Dec
5
answered did <verb> and <verb>
Dec
5
awarded  Teacher
Dec
5
comment Is there any difference between “has gone” and “went” in this context?
This wasn't your question, but I should also add that there is a similar difference between "Mirek has gone" and "Mirek has been". When you use "has been" you are indicating that Mirek has gone and come back.
Dec
5
answered Is there any difference between “has gone” and “went” in this context?