Daisy

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visits member for 1 year, 11 months
seen Jun 22 '11 at 14:54
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22
awarded  Notable Question
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11
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awarded  Custodian
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awarded  Yearling
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Jul
9
accepted “boilinghot” vs “boiling-hot” vs “boiling hot”
Jul
9
asked “boilinghot” vs “boiling-hot” vs “boiling hot”
Jul
8
comment Why himself and themselves, not hisself and theirselves?
I know, that's why I'm obsessed with it for so long and also did many research but never reached any point yet.
Jul
8
comment Why himself and themselves, not hisself and theirselves?
I copied from others. It's about the posessive form, only "HIMself" and "THEMselves" didn't use their posessive, instead they use their objective "HIMself" and "THEMselves":)
Jul
8
comment Why himself and themselves, not hisself and theirselves?
I don't know if this actually answers the question. Why, if all other forms are formed from [posessive] + self (see note), is it himself and themselves. I believe I remember being told in one of my linguistics classes that hisself and theirselves were the original forms, and then later changed. Note: I would argue that herself is formed from the possessive "her", not the objective. Additionally, I would argue that in itself and oneself, the "s" of the possessive is simply being reduced, as it appears next to the "s" of "self". – rintaun Jun 28 at 23:25
Jul
8
asked Why himself and themselves, not hisself and theirselves?
Jul
8
accepted Is there a rule in preposition-using?
Jul
7
accepted What do you want for/of/from/with me?
Jul
7
asked What do you want for/of/from/with me?
Jul
7
reviewed Approve suggested edit on Is there a rule in preposition-using?