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19

I believe it depends very much on where the speaker needs to place the emphasis. Q. Where did you say you put the white elephant? A. I put it on the table. Q. I thought the charity box was under the table. It's not here. A. I told you I put it on the table. Q. How did that strange letter come to be on the table? A. I put it on the table. Q.Who put ...


10

As Greg said in his comment, it is important to remember that they are different words even if they happen to share an English spelling. This should help you to come to the definition of what to call them. These are called homographs that are heterophones. Derived from homo (same) -graph (write) and hetero (different) -phone (sound). A homograph (from ...


8

Edit: Your updated question has provided context. As a simple response to the question, "Have you been waiting long?", the subtle stress is placed upon got, just like you have determined. Word stress can also introduce meaning to the sentence when the emphasis is not so subtle. Any of the words can be emphasized to change the meaning of the sentence. ...


8

Merriam-Webster and my own personal experience with American English suggest pronouncing it ˈeg-zə-mə Cambridge Dictionary Online lists the pronunciation as ˈek.sɪ.mə and provides audio of English and American pronunciation.


7

Most English speakers wouldn't know what to do with an â inside an otherwise English word and no context regarding source language. Some people will simply ignore the circumflex and pronounce the English word; we've seen companies do this enough times that it's lost part of its charm. Some people will go out of their way to pronounce it differently, ...


6

The following extract may help understand the origin and evolution of a and an ( see also the juncture loss below). English Indefinite article: The indefinite article of English takes the two forms a and an. Semantically they can be regarded as meaning "one",* usually without emphasis. They can be used only with singular countable nouns; for the ...


5

There is no reason that a word spelled though shouldn't be pronounced /ðʌf/ in principle. However, with regard to the English word we are actually talking about, the problem is the other way round. Words are primarily a progression of sounds. The spelling is a means of representing that series of sounds. So, in a way, the question might be phrased: "Why do ...


4

In Greek, it would have been spelled -ai and pronounced -/aj/ or -/aʲ/ (I think there is debate about this subtle distinction, which does not matter for us here: it sounds like English eye). In classical Latin, it would have been pronounced the same as in Greek, -/aj/ or -/aʲ/. Almost all Greek words we have came to us through Latin. In the older ...


3

Here is an approximation to what SPE (The Sound Pattern of English) predicts for the stress contour. The Nuclear Stress rule applies to the constituents in the syntactic structure to make the last primary stressed syllable have a primary stress, and all other stresses in the same constituent are weakened by one degree. I've bracketed the constituents that ...


3

In most cases the pronunciation of u as /ju:/ is an indication that the word is connected with a French word. French u is regulary pronounced as /y/ as in French le duc /dyk/ - English duke /dju:/, AmE /du:k/ F dû/due /dy/ - E due /dju:/ F la vue /vy/ - E view /vju:/ Also German words with ü become words with /ju:/ in English G München - E Munich ...


3

Maybe. We judge the stress by pitch, vowel reduction, and perhaps in other ways. In your example, judging by pitch, I think I would say the first two syllables of "Alexandra" out of context with higher pitch on the first syllable than on the second, but in your example sentence, "Hey Alexandra!", I find it most natural to give those syllables the same low ...


3

The initial consonants in ‘tear’ (the verb) and ‘dare’ are distinguished mainly by the fact that initial /t/ is unvoiced and slightly aspirated while initial /d/ is slightly voiced and not aspirated. The /t/ in ‘stair’ is not aspirated, so it is distinguished from /d/ only with regard to voicing. The voicing of /d/ is however so slight that there is ...


3

"Mycorrhizae" is an English word, not a Greek one. As such, it doesn't have a "Greek" pronunciation, but rather several English pronunciations. It's true that it's derived from Greek, but that's merely a matter of etymology. The pronunciation in English of the plural ending "ae" that occurs in Latinate or Greek-derived words is actually an area where there ...


3

I went to a French Wikipedia page on circumflex. It has the advantage over the English page in that it shows how different languages treat vowels with a circumflex. Under the French section, it says: Dans d'autres cas, il résulte d'une voyelle double (âge pour aage, rôle pour roole) ou d'une simple évolution de la prononciation... It would make the a ...


2

I stress that like this: [3gɛt̬ 2ɔf jər 1hɑɪ 3hoərs]. I've used "1" for primary stress, "2" for secondary, and so on. As you say, the "t" of "get" is flapped -- that is independent of the stresses of neighboring vowels, because the "t" is at the end of a syllable and is between vowels. (I don't understand the diacritic you've put on the [t].) If by ...


2

The two sounds are very similar, but /t/ is the unvoiced equivalent of /d/. Many languages have both sounds. Listen for the voiced component as you would when dealing with /b/ vs. /p/, /g/ vs. /k/, and other such consonant sounds.


2

Stress in sentences in English often indicates the shade of meaning the speaker wishes to convey. In this case, there is not a unique way to say this phrase. (2)Keep your (1)voice down: What you'd use when reminding somebody they will have to speak softly (say, they're going into an animal shelter where speaking too loudly will agitate the animals). ...


2

The two words have totally different histories. Without going into the English line of development it is possible to show this by comparison with German. though/although is related to German doch/jedoch. http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?allowed_in_frame=0&search=though&searchmode=none tough is related to zäh, Bavarian zach ...


2

I guess you're right, there is a slight difference, based on the roundedness of the following vowel. For consonants it is called labialization. But in English the degree of labialization is very minimal, and is totally non-phonemic. I wouldn't want to call it a 'labialized s' because that would give the impression that it was far more labialized than it ...


2

As to the letter g the general rule is g + "dark vowels (a o u) is pronounced as /g/ as in garden gold guard guess guide gust. In French words such as guard, guide the u is a mere graphic sign indicating that g is spoken /g/. This u is inserted before frontal vowels such as e or i. g before frontal vowels e and i is spoken /ʤ/ as a rule. Gina, gin. This is ...


2

The letter g can indeed be pronounced as IPA symbols d͡ʒ or ɡ whereas the letter j is overwhelmingly d͡ʒ (and pretty much never ɡ). English lacks consistent spelling→pronuciation rules. It really depends on what language the word was plucked from ... and when. Words that pre-date the standardization that took place from the first dictionaries tend to ...


2

The general rule has [ði] before phonetic vowels, [ðə] before phonetic consonants. This is parallel to the use of "an" and "a". However, there are a few complications: [ði] is also used in some cases as an emphasized form of the definite article; this can occur no matter what sound the following word starts with. You might on occasion hear an English ...


2

You could check for the rhymes in many sources, for example, http://www.rhymezone.com. silver - Wilver (a nickname), chilver (a ewe lamb), pilver (urban: "The feeling one has after staying awake far too late doing nothing productive and knowing all the while that one is doing nothing productive") orange - sporange, Blorenge (a mountain in Wales) ...


2

As with similar cases like Beaulieu, Belvoir, Cholmondley, Fetherstonhaugh, Leicester -- (Bewley, Beaver, Chumley, Fanshaw, Lester) -- it's because English spelling changes much more slowly than English pronunciation. Old families had their name written down a long while ago and there's great risistance to spelling reform in English. Despite this, the spoken ...


1

You're right, "got" has the strongest stress. "Here" is like pronouns in sometimes having less stress than a full phrase would have.


1

The key word is context. If you just say either of these two words, without context, many people may be confused as to which of the two you mean. However, in context, this will rarely happen, because man is highly informal, both as a form of address, and certainly as an interjection, whereas ma'am quite formal. For example, the interjection man would ...


1

Calling someone "man" is extremely informal, while referring to a lady as "ma'am" is an overtly polite usage - so, one would take the clue from the proceeding word/words: "Hey, Man" - "Good evening, Ma'am" "S'up, Man?" - "Can I help you, Ma'am?" "Yo, Man, that what you pushin' these days?" - "Excuse me, Ma'am, is this your car?"


1

the is pronounced with as a long "thee" [ði] before the vowels.


1

I think Ian Macdonald has identified the essential point: if words can be distinguished reliably (whether by spelling or pronunciation) they are not the same word. But that's a big if; for example, in Britain a fillet is pronounced the same way whether you refer to a fillet steak or a strip of metal. If the last two letters are to be pronounced "A" you need ...


1

the pronunciation is actually with "s" not with "z"



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