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In the succinctly named textbook: English Grammar in Familiar lectures. Embracing a new Systematick Order of Parsing. A New System of Punctuation, Exercises in false Syntax, and A System of Philosophical Grammar. Designed for the use of Schools and Private Learners by Samuel Kirkham, dated 1834 we have this example of usage pertaining to Pennsylvania The ...


3

The reflexive pronoun is required when the subject and complement of the verb (or preposition) are the one and the same person. But in the sentence "Quote," said an older version of me, the subject is "an older version of me" and the complement is "Quote". Hence the 'rule' does not apply and me is grammatical in this context. However, it is common to ...


3

To "address the concern" which I haven't in comments... David OR Michael forgot to take his parasol David OR Alice forgot to take __ parasol Either the manager or his assistants failed in their duty. Either the assistants or their manager failed in __ duty. In all of these instances — including the very first one, replacing his — ...


3

The reflexive pronouns (the ones that end in -self) can only be used when the person or thing they refer to is the same as the subject in the sentence. In your sentence, the subject is my tummy. The pronoun at the end (the object) is me/myself. If you use a pronoun instead of the noun phrase my tummy, it has to be it: “How is my tummy? It is hungry”. That ...


3

Sounds like your commenter is from an earlier tradition of analysis. These days, amongst other determiners, bare quantifiers used in a context where a substantive is expected, such as the subject or object of a clause, are generally considered pronouns. Certainly Wikipedia disagrees with the assertion that indefinite pronouns cannot be plural: ...


2

If you insist on keeping the structure of the sentence as it is, and there is either a gender or a singular/plural clash, use their and pull up the drawbridge. On the question of personal pronouns it's impossible to be both grammatically correct and politically correct in all cases, but their is the choice that will offend or annoy the least number of ...


2

That depends entirely on the context and whom you’re talking to. I vs. me in general The only place where I can be used without any fear of it being controversal to anyone at all is as the direct subject of a verb. Here, the ‘oblique’ form me is more or less universally impossible (except when mimicking baby talk): I like coffee. (*Me like coffee.) I ...


2

The sentence is, Our Supervisor finally noticed that it was we, Kim and I, who always turn in our reports on time. Should it actually be "you and me" or "you and I"? There are a lot of different issues involved, and it would have been helpful if you had described the situation better. For instance, who all is present in that situation, ...


2

etymonline.com says "them" is related to Old Norse theim written with the special letter thorn, the th-sound as in "them". theim was the dative plural of "they". What I miss is a hint at German: Compare they die, them denen, their deren/derer. And compare one of them einer von denen, meaning one of those people there. In English them was used as object ...


2

The other two answers have addressed whether the construct is "grammatical" or not, so I wanted to tackle the other part of the question: Can we use it in daily speech? Can this usage go beyond a specific dialect and be used in other dialects, regions etc.? In my experience, within the American South and rural Appalachian dialects it is certainly used ...


1

Political correctness being highly valued in the Anglo-Saxon world, the singular pronoun "they" (them, their, theirs) is used instead of "he or she" (him or her, his or her, his or hers) whenever a noun which is not gender-marked is used (teacher, doctor, someone, anyone, etc). "They" has the merit of being unisex (not offending women by not mentioning that ...


1

Him refers to to the father. The subject of the clause is the baby and finger and father are the objects. This is the translator's ambiguity and not an English language quote by Marquez at all. This is from a poem called La Marioneta by a Mexican ventriloquist named Johnny Welch who passed the work off as that of Marquez in 2000. Here it is in Spanish ...


1

It is the difference between the affirmative, the negative and the interrogative forms. This is the simple present tense and do/does/don't/doesn't are the forms of the auxiliary. When the auxiliary is present, the main verb reverts to its root form, i.e. without 's'. We don't use an auxiliary in the affirmative: he works hard (except in the emphatic ...


1

It would be "I have included Linda's and my suggestions in the file." The trick is to simplify. Separately you would write: "I have included my suggestions in the file." and "I have included Linda's suggestions in the file." Since the same rules apply in combination, either "my and Linda's", or "Linda's and my" are correct. "Both" is optional before ...


1

The selection of these vs. those is the same as this vs. that. (These/those are the plurals of this/that respectively.) All four are demonstrative pronouns in English. Typically, the differentiation between this and that is related to the proximity to the speaker. This proximity can be either physical distance or even temporal distance. This is my ...


1

To sum up what I was suspecting and what is suggested in one of the comments and (I believ) in one of the answers, God is refered to as thou (and its related case forms) because that is the only 2sg pronoun used in KJV. The only possible case where a single person is referred to in the second person is Titus 2:7--8. The other epistle addressed to a single ...



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