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2

It is all a question of CONSISTENCY OF REGISTER! Which is a WORD which/that is more formal than that or the absence of a relative pronoun (both being possible only when the relative pronoun is not the subject of the verb in the relative clause and when this clause is defining/restrictive). There are also STRUCTURES that are more formal than others as, for ...


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"A person acts recklessly within the meaning of section 1 of the Criminal Damage Act 1971 with respect to - (i) a circumstance when he is aware of a risk that it exists or will exist; (ii) a result when he is aware of a risk that it will occur; ... and it is, in the circumstances known to him, unreasonable to take the risk" It would be ...


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My answer comes so late that it is probably doomed to dwell at the bottom of the answer column, but the question remains a question about which I care, so my answer adds a point other answers have missed. "Which" instead of "that" is almost always used in sentences with nonrestrictive qualification, as The horse, which is in the paddock, is six years ...


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It's correct either way. English has lost its case system almost completely. This makes it hard even for native speakers to decide between subject case (nominative) and object case (formerly accusative/dative). A long time ago -- far too long ago to be directly relevant today --, English still had a 'proper' type system and the copula be was followed by ...


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I don't have enough reputation to post a comment yet, which is why this is posted as an answer: I've noticed over the years using Microsoft Word, that the Grammar & Spellcheck function likes to use/correct/suggest "that" for singular, and "which" for plural. Also, it insists on a comma before "which". i.e. ...the film that... and ...the ...


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The following article from grammophobia is about the suffix -eth used in uncommon slang construction (such as many-eth) to refer to an indefinite number. I think it may apply also to the uncommon term "whichevereth" you are referring to: In sober—that is, standard—English, we’d say something like “How much beer have we had” or “How many beers ...


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There's a simple reason why subject pronouns like him and me should be objective here. There are, as noted, any number of different ways to report the same proposition. But there is a very limited number of possible complement clause types in English. There are only four of these types of clause [bracketed below]: two finite clause types, requiring a ...


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Nominative would be wrong. The pronouns in him and me walking by his neighbours houses ... are the subject of the clause, but the clause is non-finite. Non-finite clauses have accusative subjects, as in for us to walk by his neighbours' houses.


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In the first example, the antecedent is "a doctor". The usual way to refer back to an indefinite antecedent (e.g., a noun preceded by the indefinite article) is one: I want to be a doctor. I like helping people that's why I want to be one. As Swan in Practical English Usage (p369) states in his entry on one: We often use one instead of repeating ...


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As any speaker can tell you, the Sun in English is generally neuter. We call it an it rather than a he or a she. Granted, you might have people like J. R. R. Tolkein calling it female, but you also have him talking about magic rings, elves, and wizards. It's fiction. When English was more German based, the Sun was female. However, the Romans came and so ...


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Sun and moon are neuter, in the ordinary fashion of English nouns. (As opposed to German or French, representing the two relevant traditions: germanic and romance). Any departure from that marks some degree of license. It is important to notice that grammatical gender was manifest in (early) Old English: sun was feminine. This is probably Tolkien's ...


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Both are grammatically correct. In British English, the second is normal, and the first almost unknown. I have read that in US English, style guides prefer the first. Other Englishes tend to follow British usage, but I don't know specifically.



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