New answers tagged past-participle
This subject has been already discussed. In order to better understand the difference, let's look at each of their definitions separately. Gerund: the -ing form of a verb when functioning as a noun, as "writing" in "Writing is easy." Present participle: a participle form, having the suffix -ing, denoting repetition or duration of an activity or event: used ...
There is no appreciable difference in meaning. However, your first example The pot broke as I kicked it. is clearer, and a more common phrasing. Your second one The pot was broken as I kicked it. is slightly ambiguous, for three possible reasons: 1) "was broken" can be read as passive, yet the sentence says that you (actively) kicked it. 2) ...
The first one is better, but neither is correct because you have moved from plural to singular. Observe: "People being mocked or teased may .... which can result in stress to him" You need to change the latter word in bold to a plural. Like so: "People being mocked or teased may .... which can result in stress to themselves"
First one is better, but neither is incorrect. Consider also: When mocked or teased, people may . . . . (edit) Charon is correct about "to him" being wrong. I might suggest changing "result in stress to him." to "cause themselves stress." Oh, and there really should be a comma after "feelings".
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