Tag Info

Hot answers tagged

14

Actually, "arhythmic" is recognized by many dictionaries as an alternate spelling (for example, Merriam Webster). As Henry notes, the Greek word is ἄρρυθμος "arrhythmos", so the spelling with one r does not come directly from Greek; it instead seems to derive from a re-combination in English of the elements "a-" and "rhythmic," exactly the way you ...


8

Although it originates in Greek as ἄρρυθμος, this kind of pattern is not uncommon in English. A comparable example is irregular, which comes from Latin.


5

How would the reader "read" the slash? Would they need to translate it in their mind to the word "or"? If so, why not save them the effort and just write the "or" directly? Why is a slash even an option? Is there something wrong with "or"?


4

You could always avoid the issue entirely and start with the much used To whom it may concern,


4

Following up on user2512's answer, I quote Online Etymology Dictionary's entry for cocoa in full: cocoa (n.) powder from cacao seeds, 1707, corruption (by influence of coco) of cacao. The printing of Johnson's dictionary ran together the entries for coco and cocoa, fostering a confusion that never has been undone. Samuel Johnson, A Dictionary of the ...


4

One needs to understand that a lot of this has to do with the advancing tide of universal public education in the US. Some public schools were developed in the mid to late 1700s (Benjamin Franklin had a hand in starting one), but the movement really gained steam in the early 1800s. (Horace Mann was a well-known advocate, and, as a result, has nearly as ...


3

In hopes of answering this question, I investigated Google Books search results to see where and when the (presumably phonetic) spellings baloney and boloney—as well as the standard spelling bologna—arose in English and who used them. The results are intriguing. Early instances of 'baloney' By far the earliest occurrence of the spelling baloney in a ...


2

"Single letter concatenative morphology"? That's what a linguist might call this, but only when word stems are augmented in a standard way (like appending an s to make a noun plural). I doubt there is a term for converting words into unrelated words through trial and error.


2

Sound change, or more specifically phonetic change: includes any processes of language change that affect pronunciation (phonetic change) or sound system structures (phonological change). Sound change can consist of the replacement of one speech sound (or, more generally, one phonetic feature) by another, the complete loss of the affected sound, or ...


2

I'm not sure I have an answer for your question, but I do know my heart stopped a little when I read it. To me, part of the richness of the English language comes from the way it has historically absorbed words from other languages, which of course has led to unusual spellings. To think about changing that seems to me to be negating the language's history ...


2

English is a rather unique world language in that it does not have official (state-sponsored) bodies existing solely as language authorities. Sure, you have the Modern Language Association in the USA, and there were famous attempts at phonological prescriptions over the pond (Received Pronunciation), but still nothing anywhere comparable to the Cervantes ...


2

(1) I would use the word render (render dialect A into dialect B) to get around that problem. It has the advantage of carrying the meaning of "to translate" while having a broader sense of casting something/someone into a particular mode. (2) Wouldn't this be simply translation? As long as you're doing it between languages, it shouldn't matter whether ...


2

The fact that Oxford Dictionaries Online provides a single definition of resettle is quite misleading, since the word can actually be used in a number of senses. A better treatment of the word appears in the full Compact Edition of the Oxford English Dictionary (1985), which begins with this: Resettle, v. Also re-settle. To settle again, in various ...


2

...Spelling-pronounciation, the tendency to allow or encourage the way a word is spelt to influence the way it is spoken, must be as old as the first attempts to commit speech-sounds to paper. In English at least it is traceably very old." From Kingsley Amis's The King's English. (The section goes on for several pages. Tell me if you want some ...


2

Both forms are correct; thingy appears to be the more common form as shown below. -ie (suffix): alternative spelling of -y; now mostly of -y (3), but formerly of others. (Etymonline) Ngram thingy vs thingie


1

It appears that it was a spelling given by Sigismund von Herberstein, (Rerum Moscoviticarum Commentarii.) Czar 1550s, from Russian tsar, from Old Slavic tsesari, from Gothic kaisar, from Greek kaisar, from Latin Caesar. First adopted by Russian emperor Ivan IV, 1547. The spelling with cz- is against the usage of all Slavonic languages the word was ...


1

Spelling pronunciation. Obviously, the words most susceptible to spelling-pronunciations are rare words that people see more often than they hear, or foreign terms that have sounds that don't exist in English.


1

Whereafter is a formal way to say: After which: dinner was taken at a long wooden table, whereafter we sipped liqueurs in front of a roaring fire. (ODO) The term is just one single word, as two separate words usage and meaning are different as shown in Ngram (whereafter vs where after).


1

I don't think that there is a specific word for this, but you could use interpret here. To translate from one language into another. (thefreedictionary.com) The words of that dialect were interpreted in this one. And yes, you could use translate for this purpose.


1

Normally you would call it, adding a prefix or suffix. But last and blast are not at all related whatsoever. And the b is not a prefix It's not possible Unless maybe you're making a program to generate words for Scrabble. And even then, no such rule exists. You cannot just generate a word by adding a letter to it. If anything, you have just added a ...


1

I don't know of any particular connection to Indian English. The idea that lower-case "i" is somehow more humble did appear in a New York Times essay by Caroline Winter about the English first-person singular pronoun, "Me, Myself and I" (hat tip to Neil Fein for locating the article in his answer to the question "Is it alright to use lowercase 'i' or should ...



Only top voted, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible