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5

The other answers are all incomplete. In many parts of England I never went to poker last night is perfectly normal (except that the people who speak that dialect probably don't play much poker). For many British speakers, never went with a specific time mentionedor implied is the normal way of expressing standard didn't go, perhaps with a slight ...


3

'Melanie' explains this usage of 'as if': As if [can be] a [subordinating] conjunction. It is used to say how something seems from the information known. It is a more formal way of saying like, and is used in the same way as as though. In ... the following sentences and examples, as if can be replaced with as though and like (in informal ...


3

It's perfectly grammatical, but rather clumsy. Apart from functions as a preposition. And, though prepositions normally take noun phrases as their complement, they can sometimes take a prepositional phrase. Other examples of this construction are There were papers all over the floor, as well as on the table. The queue stretched from the theatre ...


2

There are two items at issue: "to poker" v.s. "to play poker" "never went" v.s. "did not go" Unless poker is a physical location, like the library, you should use "to play poker" Both "never went" and "did not go" imply that you did not travel somewhere to play poker yesterday. The phrase "never went" might also imply that you intended to play ...


2

If you mean: "I was intending to go play poker yesterday, but for some reason I never got around to it", then yes, your sentence is all right. But it might be better to say: "I never did go to poker yesterday", with stress on "did".


1

You would use I for the subject of the sentence and not Me. The fact that the subject is plural is not relevant. The fact the the tense is past or past perfect or present perfect is not relevant. The inclusion of both is not relevant. If we take the first sentence and discard words two through five, we are left with: "Me have reviewed the fees." Clearly ...


1

Blind people say things like "See you tomorrow", so I think we can consider that the word "see" is being used in a non-literal sense. P.S. You're asking what's correct English for an e-mail or Facebook?  Tell me, have you ever written "ROTFL" when you weren't really rolling on the floor?


1

I wouldn't worry about it so much. You obviously mean "nice to meet you [over some medium] again" from the context, and "good to see you" is perfectly okay even if you're not really "seeing" them.


1

The short answer is, Yes you can omit there from the sentence "How much juice is there in the bottle?" without altering its substantive meaning. Though I haven't been able to find a reference work that addresses a specific example where there appears midway through the sentence, as it does in the OP's example, this is clearly an instance of what (in comments ...


1

It's a commonly misunderstood phrase. A misapplication of the definition occurs almost always, it seems. In this case, 'humble' is used in the rank/status/quality context. That is having or showing a modest or low estimate of one's own importance/of low social, administrative, or political rank.. That is "With consideration of my limited capability to ...


1

The affinity of the negation is to the verb not the the 'much'. You can tell this is going on because you are more likely to see "That isn't much use to me" than to see "That is little use to me." And when you answer 'Not much', you are paraphrasing 'Yes, there is. But there is not much'. If there were none, you could not say 'not much', though none is ...



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