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As a crude rule of thumb, if you: spend something to do something ... then you spend it before you get or achieve the second thing. Here are some examples: We spent a lot of money to ensure the highest quality of workmanship. It's time to spend money to create jobs. There's no hiding from the fact we spent money to get players in. In these instances, ...


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You might set aside a lot of time to shop for a hard-to-find item, and then you could spend a lot of time shopping for it. But when transactional verbs like "spend" are followed by an infinitive phrase, the infinitive will typically have the meaning of "get" or "acquire". You don't spend to shop, you spend to get or to have. I spent a lot of money to ...


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I agree with Ann O'Rack at WordReference: It doesn't sound idiomatic to say "I spent 10 minutes to eat my meal"[–] it's definitely "I spent 10 minutes eating my meal". Even the 'in order to' (ie 'in preparing for') reading doesn't sound idiomatic to me. This would correspond to an unaugmented 'I spent 10 minutes.'. These Google Ngrams where 'spend ...


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They are both grammatically correct, but the first construction is not common in AmE. It would probably be interpreted the same as the "shopping" (second example). A tiny fraction of readers might interpret it as "a long time [getting ready] to shop." that is, a long time until she started shpping. Or they might figure that "to shop" includes traveling ...


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Spending a lot of money "to buy" a house would be taken the same as spending a lot of money on/for a house, meaning that the price was high. (Of course, few people buy a house outright; they take out a mortgage and pay it off bit by bit, paying much more, over the years, than the price; however, one still speaks of the price as "how much you pay" for the ...


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Actually, in older stages of English, the -ing form was used only for the gerund, while the present participle had an "-end-" ending. The "-in'" ending in colloquial English, southern American English, and many British dialects is probably a leftover from this "-end-" inflection.


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They are neither grammatical nor interchangeable. "She denied knowing him." (the first one revised) and "She denied having known him." (the second one revised) are still different. In the first she might still know him (denial or no); in the second she can't still know him.



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