Hot answers tagged

5

I was interested in seeing what use authors have historically made of the construction "mind and [other verb]," along the lines of the poster's wording "would you mind and do something." So I ran Google Books searches for three phrases—"now mind and," "mind and do," and "you mind and"—for the period 1600–2008. These searches yielded quite a few matches, ...


5

What's the difference between using either for or in in the following examples? Bill hasn't taken a vacation for/in two years. Jack hasn't been to school for/in four days. I hadn't seen Mary for/in three weeks when she finally decided to show up. There is no difference in grammaticality. All 3 sentences are grammatical, with either for or ...


5

They are not quite the same. Road refers almost exclusively to something use for the travel of motor vehicles as the definition you quote says. Pavement is a hard surface, almost always for travel of some kind, but sometimes other things. For most kinds of road the terms could be used interchangeably, but there are exceptions. Let me give examples to ...


3

The first option is correct, the second not. The verb form, should ask is subjunctive and expresses a hypothetical situation that has not yet happened. The verb form should asked is not a standard form. If you were describing a hypothetical referring to a time already passed, you could say Should he have asked you ... or If he had asked you ...


3

Modal verbs require verb complements in the infinitive form: Should he ask ... He should ask ... Should SUBJ asked is ungrammatical. Asked could occur, however, if the complement of the modal is auxiliary BE or HAVE taking asked as its complement: Should he be asked, he will respond ... Should he have asked, he would have been told ... ...


2

The disputed usage is due to how although team, government, class, etc., are singular nouns, suggesting that they should be conjugated with the singular verb "is", they are made up of many people. And so, to say that the government is always changing their mind makes sense when you think about so many people in the government changing their mind, but not if ...


2

Normally, on a CV or résumé, people use the word "education." Also, the word would be "schooling," not "school." "Schooling" is synonymous with "education." "School" is where one goes to get their "schooling," their "education." In some places and to some people, however, "school" doesn't mean higher education. Instead, it's associated with "primary ...


2

To heck with heck, let's fix that transition. The AI will recognize people entering the apartment, greeting them with their prefered lighting and temperature conditions, playing their preferred music, recording their favorite shows, and make their desired blend of coffee. It will even help reduce costs by monitoring electricity and gas usage. In short, ...


1

AmEng here. Would you mind and do something sounds entirely bizarre to me. To me, the definition of "mind" in these cases is "to be annoyed or upset about something." -- Substituting that definition, the "and" separates the verb that would be annoying. It makes no sense: Would you be annoyed and provide the phone number? vs. Would you be annoyed ...


1

Why would such examples be "frowned upon"? Because careful speakers/writers often place a high premium on consistency. The "disputed" usages you cite have an apparently paradoxical problem of grammatical number. The government is always changing their mind. If government is singular, which is indicated by a singular verb, then where do the ...


1

You can omit alls kinds of things. 3:00 is three 3:15 is three fifteen 2:45 is quarter of if the context is "Is it 3?" "No, it's quarter of." 3:30 is half past three or half past in context, but never half to/of four 3:05 is five after three or five after in context 2:55 is five of three or five of in context, or two fifty five ...


1

Yes. According to your dictionary, and my own experience: In the US, the three words are synonyms. But, of course, in the UK "pavement" does not mean this.


1

My sense of the language insists there is a potential semantic difference, a difference in meaning, although the two phrases 'in two years' and 'for two years' are often used interchangably. Leveraging the difference in meaning might require nuanced poetic use, but I think not. For past tense, negative constructions (as in "Bill hasn't taken a vacation ...


1

The expression is “would you mind to … ?” “Would you mind?” means “would it bother you?” Would you mind [to] provide the phone number connected [with] the account? Would you mind [to] tell us what you've tried? Would you mind [not to] steal my Sig? Would you mind [not to] repeat that to anyone? So it is “Would it bother you not to ...


1

'I have always striven to reach my goals', is correct in my opinion. I have heard 'strived' used and think that is part of the trend to regularize all the verb endings in English, forgetting the origins of the language. That would make it much easier for non-English speakers to learn. 'have striven' is pluperfect tense, whereas 'strove' is past tense.



Only top voted, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible