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2

That is partly because Bradbury didn't name the book, The Fahrenheit 451. He did, however, name other books The Martian Chronicles, The Halloween Tree, The Illustrated Man, etc. There are many "bibles" (authoritative books). Bible comes from the Greek biblia ‘books', from biblion ‘book’. Refering to it as The Bible sets it apart from other (authoritative) ...


0

If you mean 'cinema' (creating and displaying of motion pictures') as an art form (compare with theater or opera or dance)... Cinema without an article is used. Compare: Opera first came to New York in xxxx. Dance was practiced by most Amerindians.


2

It would be cinema was invented in 1895. You'd use the cinema to talk about a theatre in particular, e.g. the cinema in Example Square was opened in 1950.


5

If you preface the noun "cinema" with 'the' then you are indicating, in BrE at least, the physical location where one goes to see a film/motion picture and one would not say the building was "invented". If you leave off 'the' from the word "cinema" then you are referring to the collective noun meaning "motion pictures as an art form". So if you mean that ...


2

"* cannot be pasted to the cells that are editable" or "* cannot be pasted to cells that are editable". The second choice is acceptable. Also, "* cannot be pasted to editable cells" is more natural. On the subject of article usage: Intuitively, I am inclined to think that the second sentence is correct. The rule is generically applicable to all ...


1

You should put the before governement if you are talking about a specific government (i.e.: the United States government, the government of India).


1

There may be some very bizarre circumstances where you can imagine such a phrase being used, but in the normal run of things, the John's cupboard is not grammatical. Whatever it is that is generating it is not an English speaker.


4

Well, first of all (in reply to your comment) there definitely is such a thing as "Indian English" - even if Microsoft don't know about it! :) Take a look at Wikipedia: Indian English to start with. In this article from the British Library, we can see that one way in which Indian English differs from British English is the way in which it handles the ...


4

Of interest: We will save this spot for next time. We will save this spot for the next time. We will save this spot for the next five minutes. All of the above are correct, with the subtle difference of the first two being reasonably meshed for native ears. As usual, context is key, and the more words added, as well as the type of phrase, ...


4

For British and American English the first sentence is correct. I'm not versed in the grammar of Indian English so I have no idea there. The reason for the 'the' there is that anytime you have a similar phrase without 'the' (for example, "we will remember this for next time" -- not "the next time"), this is conversational English, not formal. To many ...


-1

Simply put, he and she are pronouns that clearly define gender. They are, and should be, used when one knows the gender of the noun. For instance, when referring to a male, you would not use she, as it would not make any sense. The pronoun it is used when gender is not explicitly known, or if the noun is, in fact, genderless, or neuter. A good example of ...


0

Sports announcers and sports fans prefer "the" (superlative) over "a" (indefinite). Consider the crosstown rivalry between the Metropolis Mavericks and the Metropolis Mavens. Suppose that last year the Mavericks and Mavens were at the very top of the league and played against one another during post-season play to determine which team was the league ...


2

Yes, both uses are correct. Part of it is stylistic. The Americans somehow sounds better than Americans at the beginning of the sentence. Part of this is that The Americans goes well with the two uses of the English. But why switch to Americans with the zero-article? Here lies the difference between 'Americans' with or without 'the'. 'The Americans' ...


1

The author uses 'the English' (where 'English' is an adjective that stands in for the noun 'Englishmen'), but 'Americans' is a noun. In this context, the definite article is required before 'English'. It is not required before 'Americans'.


0

"The big one", definitely. "Time for a big one" sounds silly to me, in almost every context.


1

Both are correct, but it depends on what you wish to express: (1) Time for "the" big one." means that there is one, specific match that is important to you. (2) Time for "a" big one." also means that there is one, specific match that is important to you, but there will be more to follow. In short, it comes down to one important match versus many. Does ...


-1

Are "it" and "he/she" even more fundamentally different than I originally thought? The word "it" refers to an inanimate thing, that is not alive nor was ever alive. "he/she" refers to a human being or animal. Using the word "it" to refer to a human being is insulting and dehumanizing.


0

Yes, "it" has many uses; more than "he" or"she". That doesn't seem surprising. Your question seems to be a thinking-out-loud whereby you are answering for yourself. Anyway, see if this helps----- "he" and "she" refer to people already identified, except in questions: "Who is she?" however, "that" can refer to an unidentified (but visible) person in a ...


0

I wouldn't use either - they're both too stilted and use too many words to convey the meaning. When's the last time you heard someone say "with the use of"? I'm not sure I ever have. A simpler and cleaner grammatical and idiomatic way of saying the same thing that I would use is either "I solved problem X using method Y" or "I solved X by using Y".


1

As several of the comments have pointed out, the correct English word is "audience". Many Western and Eastern European languages use in this sense the equivalent of French publique, German Publikum, but English goes its own way. Have a look at this: http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/audience (under "translations").



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