A contraction is a shortened version of the written and spoken forms of a word, syllable, or word group, created by omission of internal letters.

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Can I use a contraction with names or only with subject pronouns?

I have a doubt. Can I use this contraction? Karen and Tony've got a computer Instead of the full form of have got : Karen and Tony have got a computer Which one should I use? Or, are both ...
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2answers
109 views

“Why didn't he” vs. “Why did not he”

I understand that [ didn't = did not]. But is it correct to write the following? Why didn't he come to work? Why did not he come to work? And can it be written as follows? Why he didn't ...
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1answer
4k views

Shalln't vs. Shan't in British English

I am a British English speaker and often use "shall" and "shall not". When I contract "shall not", I pronounce it [ʃɑlnt] -- that is, the "l" sound remains. My question, therefore, is how do I spell ...
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1answer
37 views

Do more contractions always mean more informality?

As my limited experience in English indicates, more contractions are used in spoken English than in written. Moreover, too many contractions favor casualness. Compare: I would not have come. I ...
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0answers
56 views

Exceptions to the rule that AAVE can omit “is” and “are” iff the corresponding form in standard English can be contracted?

According to Wikipedia: Only the forms is and are (of which the latter is anyway often replaced by is) can be omitted; am, was, and were are not deleted. These forms cannot be omitted when ...
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43 views

I wouldn't vs I'd not

I'm defending my word choice to an editor in a novel I've written. There are two points of view: one is a native Irish speaker, and the other, an American born and raised here. They're both eighteen. ...
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0answers
132 views

Contracting “I should have” to “I'd've”

I know that for "I would have" the contraction "I’d have" or "I’d’ve" is a lot more frequently used in everyday conversation. But is the same true for "I should have"? Is "I’d've" also prefered?