In the sentence "For I shall learn no more of him" (Edgar Allan Poe, The Man of the Crowd), for means because. Is it acceptable to use the conjunction with this meaning nowadays?
The mixture was added water. This sentence, written by a non-native speaker, seems somehow odd to me, but I cannot say that I find it at all ambiguous. Is the sentence problematic by normal ...
What's a word for this? I thought of taboo (or from MW - taboo). But I'm not sure that this is the right word. Examples of this kind of topic include: money sex other people not present Is there a ...
I am looking for a word for (the act of) someone accepting information as fact without ever checking. For example, I read an article in newspaper and believe it without fact checking. I tell my ...
To be possible/impossible can be followed by an infinitive verb only when the subject of the finite verb is the introductory "it". With any other subject the infinitive would be wrong, so I've ...
In the thread accompanying the question The holidays are a good time to be with family, Colin Fine writes The holidays is a good time..., which I don't think is idiomatic even in the US I'd ...