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where should we use has/have been and had been?

[Company] had spent previous years a few blocks away from the new location.

This sentence uses "had spent", but to me it looks like "has spent" is grammatical.

What is grammatically correct in American English?

Let me know if any other information is required to answer this question correctly.

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marked as duplicate by Noah, Mahnax, Kris, FumbleFingers, RegDwigнt Jan 3 '13 at 14:14

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1  
Those phases have different meanings. –  Mr Lister Jan 3 '13 at 8:23
    
Could you please add more about the context? Like what you're trying to convey? Either sentence could still work, but it really depends. –  simchona Jan 3 '13 at 9:11
    
Can you provide some example that which one is correct in which case and when? A generic help even if a link to online resource will be helpful. –  Dharmavir Jan 3 '13 at 9:11
    
Might be helpful if you quoted the previous sentence as well. –  Barrie England Jan 3 '13 at 9:20

1 Answer 1

If you look carefully, you might find that similar questions have been asked and answered here before. Very briefly, and very generally, the present perfect construction is used to describe a past event that has current relevance. The past perfect construction is used to describe one past event that occurred before another.

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I understand @barrie-england but basically as simchona mentioned either can be true and that is the reason I got confused. –  Dharmavir Jan 3 '13 at 9:08
    
shall I assume that "has spent" is correct choice if the event is just before the current even and not previous to previous? –  Dharmavir May 15 at 11:01

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