In American English, in words ending with -age, -ate and -ace, the ‹a› correspond to /ɪ/ (short i). Examples:
image, village, damage
private, senate, separate
surface, preface, palace
(It should be noted that dictionaries do not always agree about the pronunciation, and some use /ə/ instead of /ɪ/ for some of the words).
In all of these words the last syllable is unstressed. In unstressed syllables vowels may be reduced to schwa or to a short vowel of a similar quality, like /i:/ to /ɪ/ and /u:/ to /ʊ/. But at the words above, the underlying vowel in the unstressed syllable is either /eɪ/ or /æ/, so it is unclear to me why the reduction is to /ɪ/.
|
|
|||||||||||
|
|
Why do you assume that the “underlying vowels” of these suffixes are /eɪ/ or /æ/? All of your example words are Old French or Latin in origin. In Middle English they would have been pronounced with [aː] or [a], which was later reduced to [ə]. The change from [ə] to [ɪ] has little to do with reduction, per se, but rather allophony—the sounds simply exchange in unstressed syllables for many speakers. From “Stress and vowel reduction in English”:
This is true for all of your example words as well. Dialects where the sounds do occur in free variation are said to have the weak-vowel merger. |
|||||||||
|