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By comparing the phonetic of "there" with "their", it seems that they are pronounced alike, aren't they?

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They sound the same, but they are not spelled alike, and they have different meanings. English is often like that, unfortunately. – JAM Oct 11 '12 at 14:09
I have to close this question as rhetorical. – RegDwighт♦ Oct 11 '12 at 14:15
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I would vote to reopen following the edit, but there is already an answer anyway. – Andrew Leach Oct 11 '12 at 14:19
@Andrew: I meant after the edit. The OP already knew the answer before he came here. This question amounts to a "No matter what all dictionaries say, I'd rather ask a random group of strangers on the Internet instead". I don't mean to sound harsh, but that's really all there is to this question right now. – RegDwighт♦ Oct 11 '12 at 14:40
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There is no difference in their pronunciation. – Fuhrmanator Oct 12 '12 at 0:03
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closed as not a real question by RegDwighт♦ Oct 11 '12 at 14:14

It's difficult to tell what is being asked here. This question is ambiguous, vague, incomplete, overly broad, or rhetorical and cannot be reasonably answered in its current form. For help clarifying this question so that it can be reopened, see the FAQ.

1 Answer

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They are pronounced alike. "Spelling" refers to the order and identity of the letters used in writing words, so there and their are not spelled the same. "Pronunciation" refers to the sound of the spoken word, and as you noted, the phonetic guides to pronouncing there and their are the same.

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Just a minute. Pronounced is what the OP meant to say, I guess. – Kris Oct 11 '12 at 14:12
I can think of parts of Scotland where there would be a detectable difference in the way the two words are pronounced. In those areas, the -ir would have emphasis, so that it would sound a little like they-ear – itsbruce Oct 11 '12 at 16:08

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