Why is it correct to say "it later came to pass" instead of "it came to pass later"? What is the rule for this placement?
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There is no particular ironclad rule that I can think of, but the first sounds immeasurably better to my ear.
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Both are perfectly grammatical. To me the second construction is in general hugely more idiomatic English (It happened later). But the first form has a slightly literary or archaic feel, and so matches better with the literary phrase came to pass. |
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Neither is necessarily incorrect; I also can't imagine that one is necessarily worse, at least without knowing the context. The semantic distinction between the two (putting aside the different poetic properties that StoneyB mentions) is a subtle one of emphasis.
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