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I got a translation assignment where I am to use UK English but with -ize spelling.

The European Union switched from -ize to -ise some years ago in its English language publications, meaning that -ize spellings are found in older legislative acts and -ise spellings in more recent ones.

Source: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/American_and_British_English_spelling_differences#-ise.2C_-ize_.28-isation.2C_-ization.29

The wikipedia link is interesting.

Apparently -ize used in British English is used in Oxford publications (which refuse -ise) even though -ise seems to be preferred in Australia and New Zealand and UK itself (3:2 ratio).

What are your thoughts on this. Is using UK English with -ize spelling the right or wrong way to approach it?

And is -ize prevalent in US English?

P.S.: I'm not a native speaker, these things are not obvious to me.

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closed as not constructive by RegDwigнt Sep 28 '12 at 14:56

As it currently stands, this question is not a good fit for our Q&A format. We expect answers to be supported by facts, references, or expertise, but this question will likely solicit debate, arguments, polling, or extended discussion. If you feel that this question can be improved and possibly reopened, visit the help center for guidance.If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

    
+1 Good points. The scope seems too broad, I'm afraid the question is not to the point. –  Kris Sep 28 '12 at 14:54
    
Thank you. How could I ask this question without being subject to an heated debate? I sincerely want to know. Perhaps I could try again asking the question again if that is alright. –  João Paulo Sep 28 '12 at 14:58
    
We need to be specific -- one point to be answered in one post. 'Is -ize prevalent in US English?' -- OK. 'What are your thoughts on this?' -- Not OK on ELU. 'Is using UK English with -ize spelling the right or wrong way to approach it?' -- Not OK on ELU. (I think so.) –  Kris Sep 28 '12 at 15:11
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