I am currently working on -ing nominalizations and I've noticed that some grammar books refer to verbal nouns as deverbal nouns. Do you (English native speakers) make the difference or do you consider these two types of nouns as being the same ? The only thing I'm sure of is that both verbal nouns and deverbal nouns derive from verbs. I just want to be sure that these two concepts exist in English and that a difference exists. Thank you, because I'm starting losing my mind!!
- Anybody can ask a question
- Anybody can answer
- The best answers are voted up and rise to the top
closed as general reference by MετάEd, TimLymington, cornbread ninja 麵包忍者, tchrist, FumbleFingers Aug 31 '12 at 2:12
This question is too basic; it can be definitively and permanently answered by a single link to a standard internet reference source designed specifically to find that type of information.If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
A verbal noun, for example a gerund, is grammatically used as a noun but is still quite verb-y.
A deverbal noun, which is fully nominalized as a common noun and can take plurals, determiners, etc.
Note that since a verbal noun and a deverbal noun can sometimes have identical forms, this might be a bit confusing, I suppose. But deverbals don't all end in "-ing" or "-ed", for example.
(Mnemonically, you can think of "verbal nouns" as being verbal in nature, while "deverbal nouns" are nouns that have been de-verbed.)