I am confused about which of the two is grammatically correct:
- Were you seen by him, he would have been surprised.
- Were you be seen by him, he would have been surprised.
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I am confused about which of the two is grammatically correct:
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Neither is grammatical. It should be
The second is obviously wrong, since it has an extra "be" in it which shouldn't be there. But the first also uses the wrong tense. Let's analyze this by untangling the passive (which makes it very confusing). First, removing the inversion, you get "you were seen by him". The active voice construction corresponding to "you were seen by him" is "he saw you". So, taking the first clause out of the passive, you get
But these tenses don't agree. It should be
Putting this back in the passive, and putting back the inversion, the correct phrasing is: "Had you been seen by him, he would have been surprised." |
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The first. Also, "Had you been seen by him...". I think "Were" includes the verb "to be" so adding "be" is unnecessary and awkward. |
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The first is okay. The second is wrong. "Be" serves no purpose in the sentence. Better still would be, "If he had seen you ...", as this avoids the odd shift from passive voice to active voice. |
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I suppose first one is correct, "Were you seen by him, he would have been surprised." As Charles said, adding "be" is unnecessary and awkward. "Were" is more correct because, You are not seen more probably. Usage of 'were' For example, "If I were famous, I would help the poor." (It is sure that I am not famous) |
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